All of the following statements regarding angiotensin II are true EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because angiotensin II is more potent than angiotensin I. Angiotensin II is a peptide hormone that stimulates aldosterone secretion and acts as a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin I is an inactive precursor that is converted to angiotensin II by the enzyme ACE. Angiotensin II is more biologically active and has stronger effects on vasoconstriction and aldosterone release compared to angiotensin I. Therefore, statement C is false as angiotensin II is more potent than angiotensin I.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because chlorpropamide has a longer duration of action compared to tolbutamide. Chlorpropamide has a half-life of around 36 hours, whereas tolbutamide's half-life is about 5 hours. This means that chlorpropamide stays in the body and continues to lower blood sugar levels for a longer period of time compared to tolbutamide. Choices A and C are incorrect as they suggest that the durations of action are equal or that tolbutamide has a longer duration, which is not the case based on their pharmacokinetics. Choice D is also incorrect as it does not address the specific comparison between tolbutamide and chlorpropamide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative due to its chemical structure. It belongs to the same class of NSAIDs as naproxen and ketoprofen, which are also propionic acid derivatives. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, thereby reducing inflammation, pain, and fever. Choice B, Indomethacin, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative. Choice C, Metamizole (Analgin), is incorrect as it is a pyrazolone derivative. Choice D, Diclofenac, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 19 hours. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to reduce by half. Cyclosporine A has a half-life of approximately 19 hours, meaning that it takes 19 hours for the concentration of cyclosporine A in the body to decrease by half. This is the most accurate description of the half-life of cyclosporine A. Choice A (25-35 minutes) is too short for the half-life of cyclosporine A, as it typically stays in the body for a longer duration. Choice B (21 days) is too long for the half-life of cyclosporine A, as this is more commonly seen in drugs with very long half-lives. Choice C (4 - 16 hours) is closer to the correct answer, but 19 hours is a more precise estimate for the half-life of cyclospor

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): 1. Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by the inability of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12. 2. It is characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and spinal cord lesions. 3. It predominantly affects elderly adults due to age-related decline in stomach acid production. 4. This choice accurately describes the key features and etiology of pernicious anemia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. This choice describes aplastic anemia, not pernicious anemia. C. This choice describes hypochromic anemia, not pernicious anemia. D. This choice is incorrect as only option A accurately describes pernicious anemia.