All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT:

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agglutination test type Gruber. This is because the Gruber agglutination test is not typically used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis. The other options (A, B, C) are commonly used methods for serological identification of Y. pestis: A) Precipitation reaction involves the formation of a visible precipitate when Y. pestis antigen reacts with specific antibodies. B) Indirect hemagglutination test detects antibodies against Y. pestis by measuring the agglutination of red blood cells. C) Immunofluorescence test uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens of Y. pestis. In summary, the Gruber agglutination test is not a standard method for serological identification of Yersinia pestis, unlike the other options provided.

Question 2 of 9

A 13 year old child complains about poor appetite, pain in the right subcostal area. Microscopical examination of duodenal contents revealed big pyriform cells with two nuclei. What microorganism was revealed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The presence of big pyriform cells with two nuclei in the duodenal contents indicates Giardia lamblia infection. This parasite is commonly found in contaminated water and causes symptoms like poor appetite and abdominal pain. Trichomonas, Amoeba, Trypanosoma, and Toxoplasma are not typically associated with these findings and symptoms. Therefore, Lamblia is the most likely microorganism based on the clinical presentation and microscopic examination results.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria produce toxins that cause damage to host tissues?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed produce toxins that cause damage to host tissues. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin causing tetanus, Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus releases toxins causing tissue damage in various infections. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in terms of producing toxins that harm host tissues.

Question 4 of 9

A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time. Incorrect choices: B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells. C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction. D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the

Question 5 of 9

What is the main function of bacterial pili?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The main function of bacterial pili is to facilitate conjugation and adhesion. Pili are hair-like appendages on bacteria that help in cell-to-cell interactions. They play a crucial role in bacterial conjugation by allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. Additionally, pili help bacteria adhere to surfaces or host cells, aiding in colonization and biofilm formation. Choices A and D are incorrect because protein synthesis and toxin secretion are not the primary functions of pili. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial motility is mainly mediated by flagella, not pili.

Question 6 of 9

After long-term antibiotic treatment a patient has developed whitish spots on the oral mucosa. Gram- positive oval budding cells were detected in the smear preparations. What causative agents were detected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. Candida fungi are known to cause oral thrush, characterized by whitish spots on the oral mucosa. The presence of gram-positive oval budding cells in the smear preparations is indicative of Candida species. Staphylococci (choice B) are gram-positive cocci, not oval budding cells. Sarcinae (choice C) are gram-positive bacteria that form cuboidal packets, not oval budding cells. Actinomycetes (choice D) are filamentous gram-positive bacteria, not oval budding cells like Candida fungi.

Question 7 of 9

What is soor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oral candidiasis. Soor is a term used to describe oral candidiasis, a fungal infection caused by Candida species. This infection presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, and roof of the mouth. The other choices (A, B, C) refer to different types of fungal infections affecting various parts of the body, not specifically the oral cavity. Therefore, based on the description of soor and its characteristics, the correct answer is D.

Question 8 of 9

What is the associated disease for rubella virus

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fifth disease. Rubella virus is associated with Fifth disease, also known as erythema infectiosum. It is caused by parvovirus B19, not rubella virus. Mumps (choice A) is caused by the mumps virus. Roseola (choice B) is caused by human herpesvirus 6 or 7. Rubeola (choice C) is the scientific name for measles, caused by the measles virus. Therefore, the correct answer is Fifth disease as it is the disease associated with rubella virus.

Question 9 of 9

Ebola viruses need to be handled in which of the following biosafety levels?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BSL4. Ebola viruses are highly infectious and pose a high risk to laboratory workers. BSL4 facilities are designed to handle agents that pose a severe threat to human health and have no available vaccines or treatments. These facilities have strict guidelines for handling infectious agents, including full-body suits, negative air pressure, and decontamination processes to prevent any possible exposure. BSL1, BSL2, and BSL3 are not adequate for handling Ebola viruses due to their lower levels of containment and safety measures.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days