ATI RN
Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
All of the following can be produced by acetaminophen EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is a commonly used over-the-counter medication known for its analgesic (pain-relieving) and antipyretic (fever-reducing) effects. The correct answer, A) Anti-inflammatory effect, is not produced by acetaminophen. This is because acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory properties compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen or aspirin. Option B) Analgesic effect is correct because acetaminophen is effective in reducing pain, making it a popular choice for headaches, muscle aches, and mild to moderate pain relief. Option C) Antipyretic effect is also correct as acetaminophen is commonly used to reduce fever, making it a staple in managing febrile conditions. Option D) Inhibition of COX-3 enzyme is incorrect because there is no known COX-3 enzyme targeted by acetaminophen. Acetaminophen's mechanism of action is not fully understood but is believed to involve the inhibition of COX enzymes in the brain. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological effects of acetaminophen is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when recommending or prescribing this medication to patients. Knowing that acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects helps clinicians choose the most appropriate medication based on the patient's condition, whether it requires an anti-inflammatory response or not. This knowledge can also prevent potential adverse effects or drug interactions when managing patients with inflammatory conditions.
Question 2 of 5
A patient develops status epilepticus. Which of the following drugs or drug combinations, given IV, is considered 'preferred' treatment for this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lorazepam then phenytoin (choice D) is preferred for status epilepticus; lorazepam stops seizures acutely via GABA, phenytoin prevents recurrence via sodium channels. Chlorpromazine/haloperidol (choice A) are antipsychotics, Valproic acid (choice B) is slower, and Flumazenil (choice C) reverses benzodiazepines. This sequence is standard.
Question 3 of 5
Treatment of acute morphine poisoning includes all the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the treatment of acute morphine poisoning, the correct answer is B) Methadone. Methadone is not typically used in the acute management of morphine poisoning. Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist commonly used in the treatment of opioid dependence or chronic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for acute opioid poisoning. A) Gastric lavage is a method used to remove the ingested substance from the stomach, but it is not typically recommended for opioid poisoning due to the risk of aspiration and lack of proven benefit in opioid toxicity. C) Artificial respiration is a crucial component in managing opioid poisoning as opioids can depress the respiratory drive leading to respiratory arrest. Providing artificial respiration helps maintain oxygenation and prevent hypoxia. D) Naloxone I.V. is the antidote of choice for opioid poisoning, including morphine. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension, by competitively displacing the opioid from its receptor sites. Educational context: Understanding the appropriate management of opioid poisoning is essential for healthcare providers, especially those working in emergency settings or with patients at risk of opioid overdose. Recognizing the signs of opioid toxicity and knowing the appropriate interventions, such as administering naloxone and providing respiratory support, can be life-saving. It is crucial to be aware of the differences between medications used in chronic opioid therapy, like methadone, and those used in acute overdose situations, like naloxone.
Question 4 of 5
A young boy who has been treated for epilepsy for a year is referred to a dentist for evaluation of massive overgrowth of his gingival tissue. Which of the following drugs was the most likely cause of the oral pathology?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) Phenytoin. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect, a condition known as gingival hyperplasia. This adverse effect is more common in children and young adults, which aligns with the scenario of a young boy being treated for epilepsy. Lamotrigine (A), Lorazepam (B), and Phenobarbital (C) do not typically cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect. It's important for healthcare providers, including dentists, to be aware of the side effects of commonly prescribed medications, particularly in patients with chronic conditions like epilepsy. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications used to manage neurological conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide comprehensive care. Connecting clinical scenarios to pharmacological knowledge helps in making informed decisions about patient care and ensuring comprehensive management of health conditions.
Question 5 of 5
A 30 year-old woman with partial seizures is treated with Vigabatrin. Which of the following is the principal mechanism of action of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Increase in GABA. Vigabatrin is an antiepileptic drug that works by irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme GABA transaminase, leading to an increase in GABA levels in the brain. GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, and by increasing its levels, Vigabatrin helps to reduce neuronal excitability and control seizures in patients with epilepsy. Option A) Sodium channel blockade is incorrect because Vigabatrin does not directly affect sodium channels. Drugs that block sodium channels are more commonly used in the treatment of neuropathic pain or certain types of seizures. Option B) Increase in the frequency of chloride channel opening is incorrect because Vigabatrin specifically targets GABAergic neurotransmission, not chloride channels. Drugs that act on chloride channels are typically used in conditions like anxiety or muscle spasms. Option D) Calcium channel blockade is incorrect because Vigabatrin does not interact with calcium channels. Calcium channel blockers are used primarily in conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of CNS drugs like Vigabatrin is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding treatment strategies for patients with epilepsy. By grasping how Vigabatrin impacts GABA levels, clinicians can appreciate its role in controlling seizures and tailor therapy more effectively for individual patients.