All of the following are minor criteria in the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in moderate-high risk population except

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Pediatric Cardiovascular Disorders Nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

All of the following are minor criteria in the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in moderate-high risk population except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population, the minor criteria include options A, B, and D, making option C, ESR 230 mm/hour, the exception. A) Monoarthalgia is a minor criteria as it refers to pain in a single joint, commonly seen in rheumatic fever due to inflammation. B) Fever with a body temperature ≥ 38.5°C is also a minor criteria, indicating an elevated temperature which can be present in acute rheumatic fever. D) Prolonged PR interval is another minor criteria, reflecting cardiac conduction abnormalities seen in rheumatic fever due to myocardial inflammation. The correct answer, C) ESR 230 mm/hour, is not a minor criteria in the Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is not included as a minor criteria in the latest guidelines for diagnosing rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population. Understanding the criteria for diagnosing rheumatic fever is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It helps in early recognition and appropriate management of this condition to prevent complications like rheumatic heart disease. By knowing the major and minor criteria, nurses can play a vital role in improving outcomes for these patients through timely interventions.

Question 2 of 5

Drug combinations recommended to be avoided include all, except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders, it is crucial for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of drug combinations to avoid to prevent adverse drug interactions and potential harm to pediatric patients. Option A) Metronidazole and Warfarin: This combination is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to the potential interaction between metronidazole, an antibiotic, and warfarin, an anticoagulant. Therefore, this combination should be avoided. Option B) Furosemide and Gentamicin: This combination is known to increase the risk of ototoxicity, particularly in pediatric patients. Both furosemide, a diuretic, and gentamicin, an antibiotic, can individually cause hearing loss, and when used together, the risk is heightened. Option C) Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers and beta blockers: This combination is generally safe and is often used together in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders to manage conditions such as hypertension and certain heart conditions. Therefore, this combination does not need to be avoided. Option D) Omega-3 and Antiplatelets: Omega-3 supplements and antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, are often used together for their cardiovascular benefits. This combination is generally considered safe and effective in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. In conclusion, option D is the correct answer as the combination of Omega-3 and Antiplatelets is not recommended to be avoided in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. The other options have known interactions or risks that make them combinations to be cautious about or avoid in pediatric patients. Understanding these drug combinations is essential for safe and effective pediatric nursing care in the management of cardiovascular disorders.

Question 3 of 5

Mechanisms of dyspnea in left heart disease include all, except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric cardiovascular disorders, dyspnea is a common symptom of left heart disease. The correct answer, option C, states that elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure leads to decreased antegrade coronary blood flow. This is correct because in left heart failure, increased pressure in the left ventricle can compromise coronary artery blood flow, leading to myocardial ischemia and subsequent dyspnea. Option A, PVH and decreased lung compliance, is incorrect because pulmonary venous hypertension (PVH) and decreased lung compliance are actually mechanisms that contribute to dyspnea in left heart disease. These factors lead to pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange, exacerbating respiratory distress. Option B, respiratory muscle fatigue, is also incorrect. While respiratory muscle fatigue can contribute to dyspnea in some conditions, it is not a primary mechanism in left heart disease-related dyspnea. Option D, reverse 'Bernheim' effect, is a distractor and not a recognized mechanism of dyspnea in left heart disease. The Bernheim effect typically refers to a phenomenon in neurology and is not relevant to the pathophysiology of dyspnea in this context. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of dyspnea in pediatric cardiovascular disorders is crucial for nurses caring for children with these conditions. By grasping how elevated left ventricular pressure affects coronary blood flow and contributes to dyspnea, nurses can better assess and manage respiratory distress in pediatric patients with left heart disease.

Question 4 of 5

Isovolumic contraction phase of ventricular systole occurs during which of the following phases of central venous pressure, approximately

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the cardiac cycle is vital. The isovolumic contraction phase of ventricular systole occurs during the phase from the trough of the x wave to the peak of the c wave in central venous pressure (CVP) tracings. This is because the isovolumic contraction phase represents the time when the ventricles are contracting, building up pressure to open the semilunar valves and begin ejection of blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta. Option A) From the nadir of the y descent to the peak of the a wave is incorrect because this phase corresponds to atrial contraction and ventricular relaxation. Option B) From the peak of the a wave to the trough of the x wave is incorrect as it relates to atrial contraction and early diastole. Option D) From the peak of the c wave to the trough of the x' descent is incorrect as it represents isovolumic relaxation, not isovolumic contraction. Understanding the relationship between cardiac events and CVP waveforms is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. By knowing when each phase occurs, nurses can better assess cardiac function and respond appropriately to changes in clinical status.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following reduces intensity of first heart sound (S1) except

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the factors that can impact the intensity of the first heart sound (S1) is crucial for accurate assessment and diagnosis. In this scenario, option B, Calcific mitral stenosis, is the correct answer as it can lead to an increased intensity of S1 due to the restricted opening of the mitral valve causing a louder closure sound. Option A, Mechanical ventilation, can reduce S1 intensity due to the altered mechanics of the heart during ventilation, affecting the timing and quality of the heart sounds. Option C, Short PR interval, is associated with conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome but does not directly impact S1 intensity. Option D, LV dysfunction, can also affect S1 intensity due to changes in the closure of the mitral valve, leading to a softer S1 sound. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing how various pathophysiological conditions can influence cardiac auscultation findings in pediatric patients. It reinforces the need for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of pediatric pharmacology, particularly in the context of cardiovascular disorders, to provide safe and effective care to young patients.

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