ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 9
All of the following are eicosanoids, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bradykinin is not an eicosanoid. Eicosanoids are signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid or other polyunsaturated fatty acids, including prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes. Bradykinin, on the other hand, is a peptide that functions as a mediator of inflammation and pain by promoting vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability.
Question 2 of 9
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Theophylline, a bronchodilator, treats COPD but has a narrow therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL). Monitoring theophylline levels prevents toxicity (e.g., seizures, tachycardia) or subtherapeutic dosing, ensuring efficacy. Sodium , glucose , and platelets aren't directly impacted. Blood level checks align with theophylline's pharmacokinetics'hepatic metabolism, variable clearance'critical in COPD where respiratory support hinges on precision. This focus prevents adverse outcomes, making A the key value to monitor for safe, effective therapy.
Question 3 of 9
A patient wants to take garlic tablets to improve his cholesterol levels. Which condition would be a contraindication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scheduled surgery would be a contraindication for taking garlic tablets because garlic has blood-thinning properties that could potentially increase the risk of bleeding during or after surgery. This can interfere with the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding and other complications during the surgical procedure. It is important to inform healthcare providers about all supplements being taken, including garlic tablets, before undergoing any surgery to ensure patient safety.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is prescribed as Proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) but also as Propecia for male pattern baldness, reducing dihydrotestosterone levels to slow hair loss. Without a prostate disorder, baldness becomes a plausible alternative indication. Erectile dysfunction isn't treated by finasteride-it may even cause it as a side effect-making that question irrelevant. Stomach ulcers and high blood pressure have no connection to finasteride's mechanism, which targets androgen pathways, not gastrointestinal or cardiovascular systems. Asking about baldness aligns with finasteride's dual use, probing a condition tied to its action on hair follicles, offering a logical explanation for its prescription in the absence of BPH, and guiding the nurse's understanding of the client's treatment rationale.
Question 5 of 9
What is the category class of Valproate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Valproate belongs to the category class of anticonvulsants, which means it is primarily used to treat seizures and epilepsy. Additionally, valproate also has properties that make it effective in the treatment of vascular headaches, such as migraines. It is not an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication like benzodiazepines, or a mood stabilizer.
Question 6 of 9
What are the drug natural interactions for phenytoin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: St. John's Wort is known to interact with phenytoin, a drug commonly used to treat seizures. St. John's Wort can decrease the effectiveness of phenytoin by increasing its metabolism in the liver. This interaction can lead to lower levels of phenytoin in the bloodstream, potentially reducing its therapeutic effects and increasing the risk of seizure recurrence. It is important for individuals taking phenytoin to avoid using St. John's Wort to prevent this drug interaction.
Question 7 of 9
A 60-year-old epileptic woman who has been on the same dose of phenytoin for 20 years develops cerebellar ataxia with nystagmus. Her other medication consists of folic acid, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and furosemide prescribed by the GP for ankle swelling and mild hypertension. She is referred to A&E. Routine investigations reveal an elevated plasma creatinine, normal plasma potassium and calcium, hypoalbuminaemia and proteinuria. The phenytoin concentration is 15 mg/L (therapeutic reference range 10-20 mg/L). A diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is made and the cerebellar signs are attributed to phenytoin toxicity. Which of the following is likely to be correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin toxicity (ataxia, nystagmus) occurs despite a ‘normal' total plasma level (15 mg/L) due to nephrotic syndrome's hypoalbuminemia. Normally, phenytoin is 90% protein-bound, with 10% free (active). Low albumin increases the free fraction (e.g., to 20%), raising CNS exposure despite a therapeutic total level. Creatinine doesn't typically interfere with phenytoin assays; they're reliable unless specific lab issues exist. Furosemide doesn't alter the blood-brain barrier for phenytoin; no evidence supports this. Oestrogen in HRT doesn't directly enhance phenytoin's CNS toxicity; it may affect metabolism, but not here. Cerebrovascular events don't fit the drug-related context. The increased free fraction explains toxicity, necessitating free level monitoring in hypoalbuminemia.
Question 8 of 9
Fluvoxamine:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluvoxamine inhibits CYP450 enzymes. It is not an MAOI, has weak anticholinergic effects, and does not require weekly blood counts.
Question 9 of 9
A 71-year-old man who has chronic back pain after falling from a first-floor apartment 25 years ago is managed with a morphine pump for his chronic pain. He also had a long history of chronic diarrhea that preceded his accident. The pump has been in place for 22 years. Which of the following effects will still likely be maintained by the device at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term morphine via pump sustains certain effects. Constipation persists-tolerance doesn't fully develop to GI μ-receptor effects, unlike analgesia , euphoria , or sedation (E). Pupil dilation is incorrect; morphine causes miosis. After 22 years, constipation remains a chronic issue, reflecting opioid pharmacology.