ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
All of the following are eicosanoids, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bradykinin is not an eicosanoid. Eicosanoids are signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid or other polyunsaturated fatty acids, including prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes. Bradykinin, on the other hand, is a peptide that functions as a mediator of inflammation and pain by promoting vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability.
Question 2 of 5
Which patient problem is a priority for patients receiving epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitors commonly cause skin-related side effects, such as rash, dryness, and paronychia (nail inflammation). These side effects can lead to tissue injury and discomfort, impacting the patient's quality of life. While bone marrow suppression and reduced platelet activity are concerns with other chemotherapies, they are less common with EGFR inhibitors. Alopecia is also less frequently associated with these drugs. The nurse should prioritize monitoring and managing skin-related side effects to prevent complications and ensure patient comfort.
Question 3 of 5
The ophthalmologist asks the nurse to prepare to assist in the administration of tetracaine, fluorescein stain, and atropine for a diagnostic eye examination. Before assisting in the procedure, it is most important for the nurse to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is a mydriatic agent that dilates the pupil and can precipitate angle-closure glaucoma in patients with a narrow anterior chamber angle. Therefore, it is critical to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of angle-closure glaucoma. Cataracts (A), open-angle glaucoma (C), and macular degeneration (D) are not contraindications for the use of atropine.
Question 4 of 5
A patient's chart includes an order that reads as follows: 'Lanoxin 250 mcg once daily at 0900.' Which action by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lanoxin (digoxin) is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias. The order specifies the dosage and timing but does not indicate the route of administration. Since digoxin can be administered orally, intravenously, or intramuscularly, the nurse must clarify the route with the prescriber to ensure safe and accurate administration. Administering the medication via the wrong route could lead to serious complications, such as toxicity or ineffective treatment. Therefore, contacting the prescriber for clarification is the correct and safest action for the nurse to take.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following adverse effects is specific to the biguanide diabetic drug metformin (Glucophage) therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) is a biguanide medication used to manage type 2 diabetes. While it is generally well-tolerated, one of its rare but serious adverse effects is lactic acidosis, a condition characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream. This can occur in patients with renal impairment or other risk factors. Hypoglycemia is uncommon with metformin alone, and GI distress, though common, is not life-threatening. Somnolence is not typically associated with metformin. Therefore, lactic acidosis is the most specific and serious adverse effect.