ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: salmonellosis. Zoonotic diseases are those that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Salmonella is not directly transmitted from animals to humans, instead, it is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water. Brucellosis (A), undulant fever (B), and plague (C) are all zoonotic diseases that can be directly transmitted from animals to humans through various means. Therefore, salmonellosis does not fit the definition of a zoonotic disease, making it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
Organisms that can grow on substances with very low moisture content are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that can survive and grow in low moisture conditions. It does not require a host cell and can thrive in moist environments, making it able to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Giardia lamblia (A), Balantidium coli (C), and Entamoeba histolytica (D) are all parasites that require a host to survive and reproduce, making them unable to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Trichomonas vaginalis is the only organism among the choices that fits the criteria of being able to grow on low moisture substances.
Question 3 of 9
A 55-year-old patient with a characteristic rash, fever, dizziness has been admitted to a hospital. He has been provisionally diagnosed with typhus. No similar cases have been reported. In his youth (15 years old) the patient suffered typhus in a boarding school. What disease is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Brill's disease. Brill's disease is a relapse of typhus that occurs in patients who had typhus in their youth. The patient's history of having typhus at 15 years old is a key indicator. Brill's disease is characterized by symptoms such as rash, fever, and dizziness, which align with the patient's current presentation. Summary of other choices: B: Typhoid fever - While typhoid fever may present with similar symptoms to typhus, the patient's history of having typhus in the past makes this less likely. C: Measles - Measles does not typically present with dizziness, and the patient's history of typhus in the past is more indicative of Brill's disease. D: Rubella - Rubella does not typically cause dizziness, and the patient's history of typhus in the past points more towards Brill's disease.
Question 4 of 9
The central dogma concerning the flow of information from genetic material was first introduced by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The central dogma of molecular biology, which describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to proteins, was first proposed by Francis Crick. Crick, along with James Watson, discovered the structure of DNA in 1953, leading to the understanding of how genetic information is stored and transmitted. Ernst Ruska was a physicist who developed the electron microscope, not related to genetic information flow. Camillo Golgi was an Italian biologist known for the discovery of the Golgi apparatus, not central to the central dogma. Carl Bender is not a prominent figure in the field of molecular biology. In summary, Francis Crick is the correct answer as he played a pivotal role in introducing the central dogma of molecular biology.
Question 5 of 9
Low-power microscopes designed for observing fairly large objects such as insects or worms are
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: stereomicroscopes. These types of microscopes, also known as dissecting microscopes, are designed for observing larger objects like insects or worms. They have a lower magnification power compared to electron microscopes (A), which are used to observe smaller objects at a much higher resolution. Dark-field microscopes (B) are used for observing live and unstained samples with high contrast, not specifically for larger objects. Fluorescence microscopes (C) are used to observe specimens that fluoresce under specific wavelengths of light, not necessarily for large objects like insects or worms. Therefore, the most suitable choice for observing fairly large objects like insects or worms is stereomicroscopes.
Question 6 of 9
Patient with diarrhoea was admitted to the infection unit. Gram-negative curved rod-like bacteria were founded on bacterioscopic examination of faecal masses. What is the most likely disease in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholera. Cholera is caused by Gram-negative curved rod-like bacteria called Vibrio cholerae, commonly found in contaminated water or food. The characteristic symptom of cholera is profuse watery diarrhea, which matches the patient's presentation. Typhoid fever (A) is caused by Salmonella typhi, which is not a curved rod-like bacteria. Diphtheria (C) is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a Gram-positive bacterium, and does not typically cause diarrhea. Intestinal form of plague (D) is caused by Yersinia pestis, which is not a curved rod-like bacteria and does not typically present with diarrhea.
Question 7 of 9
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: spleen. The spleen is not a component of the gastrointestinal tract; it is part of the lymphatic system. The pharynx, esophagus, and stomach are all part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for digestion and absorption of food. The spleen's main functions include filtering blood, storing blood cells, and supporting the immune system, making it unrelated to the digestive process.
Question 8 of 9
The mumps virus belongs to family:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.
Question 9 of 9
Simple nutritive media are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Meat-peptone agar, as it provides a simple nutritive media for bacterial growth. This agar contains meat extract and peptone, which are good sources of nutrients for bacterial growth. Glucose broth (A) is a liquid medium with glucose but lacks other essential nutrients. Ascites (serum) agar (B) is a selective medium used for detecting pathogens in clinical samples. Blood agar (D) is a differential medium used to distinguish different types of bacteria based on hemolytic reactions. Meat-peptone agar is the simplest and most general-purpose medium among the options provided.