ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: spleen. The spleen is not a component of the gastrointestinal tract; it is part of the lymphatic system. The pharynx, esophagus, and stomach are all part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for digestion and absorption of food. The spleen's main functions include filtering blood, storing blood cells, and supporting the immune system, making it unrelated to the digestive process.
Question 2 of 9
The central dogma concerning the flow of information from genetic material was first introduced by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The central dogma of molecular biology, which describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to proteins, was first proposed by Francis Crick. Crick, along with James Watson, discovered the structure of DNA in 1953, leading to the understanding of how genetic information is stored and transmitted. Ernst Ruska was a physicist who developed the electron microscope, not related to genetic information flow. Camillo Golgi was an Italian biologist known for the discovery of the Golgi apparatus, not central to the central dogma. Carl Bender is not a prominent figure in the field of molecular biology. In summary, Francis Crick is the correct answer as he played a pivotal role in introducing the central dogma of molecular biology.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacterium can contaminate foods and grow at refrigerator temperatures (4°C-8°C)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yersinia enterocolitica. This bacterium can contaminate foods and grow at refrigerator temperatures due to its psychrotrophic nature. Yersinia enterocolitica is known to cause foodborne illnesses even when stored at cold temperatures. Shigella sonnei is a human pathogen transmitted through fecal-oral route, Campylobacter jejuni is typically found in poultry and causes food poisoning, and E. coli can cause foodborne illnesses but does not grow well at refrigerator temperatures.
Question 4 of 9
From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.
Question 5 of 9
When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: peak effect. When drug receptors are maximally activated, it means the drug has reached its highest effectiveness, resulting in the peak effect. This occurs when the drug concentration is at its highest level in the body, leading to the maximum response. Threshold level (A) refers to the minimum amount of drug needed to produce a response. Cessation effect (C) is when the drug's effect wears off. Latency time (D) is the time it takes for the drug to start producing an effect. So, the peak effect best describes the scenario where drug receptors are maximally activated.
Question 6 of 9
A 2-year-old unvaccinated child is admitted to hospital with high grade fever, maculopapular rash and whitish spots located bilaterally on the buccal mucosa, corresponding to Filatov-Koplik's spots. What kind of test will support your diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen
Question 7 of 9
All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: salmonellosis. Zoonotic diseases are those that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Salmonella is not directly transmitted from animals to humans, instead, it is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water. Brucellosis (A), undulant fever (B), and plague (C) are all zoonotic diseases that can be directly transmitted from animals to humans through various means. Therefore, salmonellosis does not fit the definition of a zoonotic disease, making it the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
A child with an enlarged, painful lymph node had Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis causes bubonic plague, characterized by enlarged, painful lymph nodes called buboes. The Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance are seen on Gram stain of Y. pestis. The other choices are incorrect because Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, not lymphadenitis with safety pin appearance. Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which typically does not present with lymphadenitis. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which is not associated with lymphadenitis or safety pin appearance.
Question 9 of 9
Symptoms of prostatitis include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to symptoms like painful urination, fever/chills, and weak urine flow. Painful urination is due to irritation of the urinary tract by the inflamed prostate. Fever/chills indicate an infection, common in prostatitis. Weak urine flow is due to obstruction caused by the inflamed prostate. Choice A is incorrect as muscle aches, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes are not typical symptoms of prostatitis. Choice B is incorrect as painful joints and nausea are not characteristic symptoms. Choice D is almost identical to the correct answer but includes an extra symptom of painful joints, which is not associated with prostatitis.