ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 Infection Questions
Question 1 of 5
All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillins cross the blood-brain barrier mainly when meninges are inflamed (e.g., meningitis), a true statement due to increased permeability. They do require dose adjustment in renal failure, as they're renally excreted, making the lack of adjustment false and the exception. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan cross-linkage, a true mechanism. Piperacillin is effective against Pseudomonas, especially with tazobactam, which is true. Only 5-10% of those with prior penicillin allergy react again, also true. The renal adjustment need is critical, as accumulation risks toxicity like seizures, guiding safe prescribing in kidney dysfunction.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse teaches the client about the difference between oral and nasal decongestants. The nurse evaluates that learning has been effective when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oral decongestants risk hypertension , unlike nasal ones, showing effective learning. Nasal use beyond days causes rebound. Only nasal causes rebound . Efficacy varies. A reflects key differences, making it the best statement.
Question 3 of 5
The client takes calcium supplements. What is the best instruction by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-e.g., fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach. Insomnia isn't typical-constipation is. Vitamin D matters-enhances absorption. Meal timing optimizes use, per guidance.
Question 4 of 5
A 23-year-old man victim of a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department. He is found to have a blood alcohol level of 850 mg/dL. Because of the way the body handles ethanol, the conventional 'half-life' to describe its metabolism does not apply. Which of the following drugs at therapeutic concentrations exhibits the same property?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ethanol's zero-order metabolism matches phenytoin , saturating enzymes at therapeutic levels. Aspirin , ibuprofen , simvastatin , and valproic acid (E) follow first-order kinetics. Phenytoin's fixed-rate clearance mirrors ethanol's.
Question 5 of 5
A 20-year-old man is diagnosed to have acute schizophrenia. Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute schizophrenia requires antipsychotics for positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations). IV haloperidol is for acute agitation, not first-line outpatient treatment. IM flupentixol, a long-acting typical antipsychotic, suits maintenance, not initial therapy. Oral olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is first-line, balancing efficacy (D2/5-HT2 blockade) and lower extrapyramidal risk, suitable for a young patient. Procyclidine treats parkinsonism, not schizophrenia. Fluoxetine is for depression. Olanzapine's oral route and profile make it ideal for initial management, promoting adherence and tolerability.