ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 Infection Questions
Question 1 of 5
All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillins cross the blood-brain barrier mainly when meninges are inflamed (e.g., meningitis), a true statement due to increased permeability. They do require dose adjustment in renal failure, as they're renally excreted, making the lack of adjustment false and the exception. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan cross-linkage, a true mechanism. Piperacillin is effective against Pseudomonas, especially with tazobactam, which is true. Only 5-10% of those with prior penicillin allergy react again, also true. The renal adjustment need is critical, as accumulation risks toxicity like seizures, guiding safe prescribing in kidney dysfunction.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is scheduled to receive a medication that is an enzyme inducer of the P450 system. What best describes the effect of this medication on the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A P450 enzyme inducer (e.g., rifampin) speeds metabolism of itself and other drugs, reducing its own effect over time as levels drop faster, requiring dose adjustments. No effect on others is extreme-some drugs' metabolism increases, lowering their effect. Increased effects suggest inhibition, not induction. Self-induction lowers efficacy, a pharmacokinetic principle affecting long-term use.
Question 3 of 5
Which statement is accurate regarding pharmacotherapy in the older adult?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aging reduces liver/renal clearance, raising plasma levels (e.g., digoxin), heightening response and toxicity risk, per pharmacokinetics. Body water drops, concentrating drugs, not diluting. Doses decrease, not increase-metabolism slows. Absorption may slow, but pH rises, not falls. Plasma increase drives effects, key in elders.
Question 4 of 5
The client takes calcium supplements. What is the best instruction by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-e.g., fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach. Insomnia isn't typical-constipation is. Vitamin D matters-enhances absorption. Meal timing optimizes use, per guidance.
Question 5 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a long history of cardiac arrhythmia is maintained on procainamide. He presents to his primary care physician complaining of malaise, fevers, and nausea. Physical examination reveals a bilateral malar rash with erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide can induce a lupus-like syndrome . Symptoms (malaise, fever, nausea) and malar rash mimic SLE, a known side effect due to drug-induced autoantibodies. Contact dermatitis lacks systemic features. Sun reaction or discoid lupus don't fit the drug link. Collagen disease (E) is vague. This reversible syndrome resolves with discontinuation, distinguishing it from primary lupus.