ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Aling Iska, a 78-year old client consults with a hemoglobin and hematocrit levels of 11mg/dl and 32 % respectively. These finding indicates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.
Question 2 of 9
A woman sees her primary care provider because of extreme fatigue for the past 2 months; she difficulty lifting even light objects. Her physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which of the ff. tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tensilon test. The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium (Tensilon) to temporarily improve muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients, confirming the diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect: A (Mestinon test) is not a standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, B (Pulmonary function studies) are not specific for myasthenia gravis, and C (Quinine tolerance test) is not a relevant test for this condition.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a well-stated nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides a specific action (offering water) at regular intervals (every 2 hours) to promote hydration, which is a clear and measurable nursing intervention. Choice A is too prescriptive and lacks flexibility. Choice C is reactive and not proactive. Choice D is vague and lacks specific guidance on how to achieve the desired outcome. By offering water consistently, the nurse ensures proactive care and helps meet the client's hydration needs effectively.
Question 4 of 9
Which instruction about insulin administration should the nurse give to a client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because maintaining consistency in the order of drawing different types of insulin into the syringe helps prevent medication errors. When mixing insulins, drawing them in the same sequence ensures the correct dose and prevents contamination. Explanation: A: Following the same order ensures accurate dosing and minimizes the risk of mixing up insulins. B: Shaking the vial can cause air bubbles which can affect the accuracy of the dose. C: Storing insulin in the freezer can damage the medication and alter its effectiveness. D: Cloudiness in intermediate-acting insulin is normal and does not indicate it should be discarded.
Question 5 of 9
A client with ascites has a paracentesis, and 1500 ml of fluid is removed. Immediately following the procedure it is most important for the nurse to observe for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A rapid, thready pulse. After paracentesis, rapid removal of ascitic fluid can lead to a decrease in intravascular volume, causing hypovolemia and subsequent compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia (rapid pulse). This is a crucial sign that the nurse should monitor for early detection of hypovolemia. B: Decreased peristalsis is not directly related to paracentesis and is not an immediate concern post-procedure. C: Respiratory congestion is not a common complication of paracentesis and is not the most immediate concern. D: An increased temperature is not a typical response to paracentesis and is not a priority observation post-procedure.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. Garcia, a 41-year old chronic alcohol drinker is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood. He was diagnosed to have a bleeding gastric ulcer and suddenly develops sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen. This likely indicates:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen in a patient with a bleeding gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer. Perforation leads to leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This presentation requires immediate surgical intervention. Option A is incorrect as intestinal development does not correlate with the symptoms described. Option B is incorrect because inflammation of the esophagus would not lead to a rigid boardlike abdomen. Option D is incorrect as the sudden onset of symptoms is more indicative of a complication like perforation rather than the development of additional ulcers.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse needs to administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G. it is supplied in a vial of 5,000,000 units of powder for injection. Instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water. How manu mL should the nurse draw up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3.8 mL. To calculate the volume needed, first determine the concentration of the solution after reconstitution: 2.4 million units / 5,000,000 units = 0.48. Next, divide the desired dose by the concentration: 2.4 million units / 0.48 = 5 mL. Since the instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water, the total volume will be 13 mL. To find the volume of the powder to draw up, subtract the water volume from the total volume: 13 mL - 8 mL = 5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should draw up 5 mL of the reconstituted solution, which is equivalent to 3.8 mL of powder for injection. Incorrect choices: A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the dilution factor of adding sterile water to the powder for injection. Option A is less than the
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This is the highest priority because compromised airway clearance can lead to life-threatening complications such as respiratory distress or hypoxia. Ensuring effective airway clearance is crucial in preventing respiratory compromise and maintaining oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk to the client's physiological well-being. Treating disturbed body image, anxiety, or imbalanced nutrition are important but can be addressed after ensuring the client's airway is clear and they are able to breathe effectively.
Question 9 of 9
How does nosocomial pneumonia occur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because nosocomial pneumonia occurs in a healthcare setting, such as hospitals or long-term care facilities, where patients are at increased risk due to exposure to pathogens and weakened immune systems. Choice B is incorrect as the timeframe of onset is not limited to within 48 hours of admission. Choice C is incorrect as nosocomial pneumonia can occur in both immunocompromised and immunocompetent hosts. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to pneumonia acquired outside of a healthcare setting.