Agglutination reaction is one of the following

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Agglutination reaction is one of the following

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ascoli ring test. Agglutination reaction in the Ascoli ring test is characterized by the formation of a visible ring at the interface of antigen and antibody. This reaction specifically tests for the presence of specific antibodies against antigens in serum, indicating a recent or current infection. The other options, Western blot, ELISA, and Reaction type Gruber, do not involve the agglutination reaction. Western blot and ELISA are immunoassay techniques that detect specific antibodies or antigens, while Reaction type Gruber is not a recognized method in immunology. Therefore, the Ascoli ring test is the correct choice for a test involving agglutination reaction.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.

Question 3 of 9

A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has white patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.

Question 4 of 9

Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through a medical procedure are called:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: iatrogenic infections. Iatrogenic infections refer to infections caused by medical or surgical treatment, including procedures that introduce microorganisms into the body. In this case, infections of the reproductive tract caused by medical procedures fall under this category. A: Chronic infections do not specifically refer to infections caused by medical procedures. B: Endogenous infections arise from organisms already present in or on the body, not introduced through medical procedures. C: Systemic infections affect the entire body, not specific to infections caused by medical procedures. Therefore, the term "iatrogenic infections" is the most appropriate choice in this context.

Question 5 of 9

Which organism is responsible for cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacteria are responsible for causing the disease known as syphilis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema pallidum. This bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis due to its unique spiral shape and ability to penetrate intact mucous membranes. It is transmitted through sexual contact or from mother to child during pregnancy. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the gut and not associated with syphilis. Treponema pallidum's specific characteristics and mode of transmission distinguish it from the other choices, making it the correct answer.

Question 9 of 9

On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.

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