ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 2 of 9
A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash on the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of renal tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C and S letters. What bacteria were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira. The key features pointing to Leptospira are the presence of convoluted bacteria resembling C and S letters, which is characteristic of Leptospira species. Leptospirosis presents with fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash, and acute renal insufficiency. The other choices (B: Treponema, C: Spirilla, D: Borrelia) do not match the histological description or the clinical presentation of the case. Treponema is associated with syphilis, Spirilla with genus Spirochaeta, and Borrelia with Lyme disease, none of which match the given scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has white patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram-positive bacteria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.
Question 6 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.
Question 7 of 9
A child suspected for tuberculosis underwent Mantoux test. 24 hours after allergen injection there appeared a swelling, hyperaemia and tenderness. What are the main components in the development of this reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mononuclears, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines. In a Mantoux test reaction, mononuclear cells, mainly T-lymphocytes, are activated by the injected allergen. These T-lymphocytes release lymphokines, leading to the observed swelling, hyperaemia, and tenderness. Granulocytes and IgG (choice B) are not the primary players in this type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Plasmatic cells (choice C) are not involved in the initial stages of this reaction. B-lymphocytes and IgM (choice D) are not the key components in the Mantoux test reaction.
Question 8 of 9
Differentiating media are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Endo, Gassner, and Levin are all examples of differential media used in microbiology. These media contain specific components that allow for the differentiation of different types of microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics or biochemical reactions. Lowenstein-Jensen and Petraniani (choice A) are selective media for mycobacteria, not differential. Apoholate-citrate agar and Brilliant-green phenol-red Lactose agar (choice B) are selective media for Salmonella and E. coli, respectively, not differential. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it includes examples of differential media commonly used for microbial identification.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the disease known as syphilis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema pallidum. This bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis due to its unique spiral shape and ability to penetrate intact mucous membranes. It is transmitted through sexual contact or from mother to child during pregnancy. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the gut and not associated with syphilis. Treponema pallidum's specific characteristics and mode of transmission distinguish it from the other choices, making it the correct answer.