ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 2 of 9
Agglutination reaction is one of the following
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ascoli ring test. Agglutination reaction in the Ascoli ring test is characterized by the formation of a visible ring at the interface of antigen and antibody. This reaction specifically tests for the presence of specific antibodies against antigens in serum, indicating a recent or current infection. The other options, Western blot, ELISA, and Reaction type Gruber, do not involve the agglutination reaction. Western blot and ELISA are immunoassay techniques that detect specific antibodies or antigens, while Reaction type Gruber is not a recognized method in immunology. Therefore, the Ascoli ring test is the correct choice for a test involving agglutination reaction.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.
Question 4 of 9
An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was accidentally injured in the left leg, but he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with foul odor. Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological testing. The microscopic examination reveals large Gram-positive bacteria, with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro at presence of oxygen. The most likely cause of this disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium perfringens. In this case, the patient's presentation of infected wound with tissue crepitation, foul odor, and Gram-positive bacteria with centrally located spores that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen is indicative of gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens. This anaerobic bacterium produces various toxins that lead to tissue destruction and gas production in the affected area. Clostridium tetani (choice A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, leading to muscle paralysis. Clostridium difficile (choice D) is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea. These choices are incorrect as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the question.
Question 5 of 9
A woman gave birth to a stillborn baby with numerous malformations. What protozoan disease could cause intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy leading to stillbirth and malformations. This parasite can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, causing severe complications. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are not known to cause intrauterine death or malformations in the same way as Toxoplasmosis. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies, Malaria by mosquitoes, and Amebiasis by contaminated food or water.
Question 6 of 9
Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.
Question 7 of 9
The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. This system uses a two-part naming system consisting of the genus and species name to classify and identify organisms. Linnaeus's contribution revolutionized the way organisms are named and classified in the field of biology. Other choices are incorrect as Pasteur is known for his work in microbiology, Martini is not associated with the development of binomial nomenclature, and Jenner is known for developing the smallpox vaccine.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.
Question 9 of 9
Production of RNA and DNA is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.