ATI RN
Virtual ATI Pharmacology Pre Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Agency that enforces the control of drugs considered to have a potential for abuse:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is the agency responsible for enforcing the control of drugs considered to have a potential for abuse in the United States. It is the primary federal agency involved in combating drug trafficking and the illegal distribution of controlled substances. The DEA works to regulate and enforce the Controlled Substances Act, which classifies drugs into different schedules based on their accepted medical use and potential for abuse and addiction. This agency plays a crucial role in preventing the diversion and misuse of controlled substances, as well as ensuring public safety and health.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is NOT an eicosanoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Kallidin is a peptide, specifically a kinin, and is not classified as an eicosanoid. Eicosanoids are a group of lipid mediators derived from arachidonic acid or other fatty acids, including prostaglandins, prostacyclin, thromboxane, and leukotrienes. Although kallidin also plays a role in inflammation and vasodilation like some eicosanoids, it is not part of the eicosanoid family.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is to receive a chemotherapy protocol that includes an alkylating agent, an antimetabolite, and an antitumor antibiotic. What is the nurse's best response when the patient asks the nurse why so much chemotherapy is needed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination chemotherapy is used to target cancer cells at different stages of the cell cycle and through multiple mechanisms of action. Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, and antitumor antibiotics each work differently: alkylating agents damage DNA, antimetabolites interfere with DNA synthesis, and antitumor antibiotics inhibit RNA synthesis. By combining these drugs, the treatment can kill more cancer cells and reduce the likelihood of resistance. This approach maximizes tumor cell killing while minimizing the risk of relapse. Dose-limiting toxicities still exist, but the combination strategy allows for lower doses of each drug, reducing individual side effects.
Question 4 of 5
An older adult patient with a hip fracture became unresponsive 20 minutes after receiving morphine 3 mg intravenously. Which actions would the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's unresponsiveness after receiving morphine is likely due to opioid-induced respiratory depression, a potentially life-threatening side effect. The nurse should first assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) and call for additional assistance. Supporting breathing with a bag-valve-mask device is critical to ensure adequate oxygenation. Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, should be prepared to reverse the effects of morphine. Flumazenil (A) is used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioids. Reporting a stroke (B) is incorrect because the symptoms are consistent with opioid toxicity, not a stroke. Explaining unresponsiveness as a desired outcome (D) is inappropriate and dangerous.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is taking aspirin for arthritis. Which adverse reaction should the nurse teach the patient to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus, or ringing in the ears, is a classic sign of aspirin toxicity, also known as salicylism. Aspirin can cause ototoxicity at high doses, leading to hearing disturbances. Patients taking aspirin for arthritis are often on long-term therapy, which increases the risk of toxicity. Seizures, sinusitis, and palpitations are not typically associated with aspirin use. Therefore, nurses should educate patients to report tinnitus immediately, as it may indicate the need for dose adjustment or discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications.