ATI RN
ATI Capstone Mental Health Assessment Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
After teaching a class on antipsychotic agents, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which of the following as an example of a second-generation antipsychotic agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quetiapine (Seroquel) is a second-generation antipsychotic agent. This is because second-generation antipsychotics, also known as atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics. Quetiapine is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Fluphenazine, Thiothixene, and Chlorpromazine are all first-generation antipsychotic agents and are associated with a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects and other adverse effects. Therefore, the correct choice for a second-generation antipsychotic agent is Quetiapine.
Question 2 of 5
A client with complex somatic symptom disorder also has anxiety. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for anxiety disorders due to their efficacy and tolerability. Step 2: SSRIs are also effective in treating somatic symptom disorders by addressing the underlying anxiety symptoms. Step 3: MAOIs are not commonly used for anxiety due to their dietary restrictions and potential for drug interactions. Step 4: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are less preferred due to their side effect profile and risk of toxicity. Step 5: Atypical antipsychotics are not typically prescribed for anxiety unless there is a specific indication for their use. Summary: B, SSRI is the correct choice for treating both anxiety and somatic symptom disorder, while the other options have limitations or are not commonly used for these conditions.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who is taking an anticholinergic medication and complains of dry mouth. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rinse the mouth with a mouthwash. Anticholinergic medications can cause dry mouth due to decreased saliva production. Rinsing with a mouthwash can help moisturize the oral mucosa and provide temporary relief. Chewing hard candies (choice A) may provide temporary relief but can also increase the risk of dental caries. Using more seasonings on food (choice C) and drinking decaffeinated beverages often (choice D) do not directly address the dry mouth concern.
Question 4 of 5
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about intimate partner violence (IPV). The group demonstrates understanding of this topic when they identify which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it highlights a common misconception that men may not recognize certain behaviors as abusive. This is important in understanding IPV dynamics as it can lead to underreporting and lack of support for male victims. Choice A is incorrect because typically women are more likely to be seriously injured in IPV situations. Choice C is incorrect as IPV rates are similar in same-sex and heterosexual relationships. Choice D is incorrect as reactions to IPV can vary based on gender due to societal norms and expectations.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute. A GFR of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, warranting hemodialysis to filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood. B: BUN 16 mg/dL, C: serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and D: serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.