Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vibrio. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria. These bacteria produce a toxin that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Escherichia (choice A) and Salmonella (choice B) are known for causing other types of gastrointestinal infections but not cholera. Acinetobacter (choice D) typically causes respiratory infections, not gastrointestinal illnesses like cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is Vibrio as it is specifically associated with cholera.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent due to its characteristic features. Streptococcus pyogenes is Gram-positive cocci in chains, which matches the description provided in the question. It is also known to be beta-hemolytic, causing complete lysis of red blood cells on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing sore throat, often associated with pharyngitis. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae - This bacterium is Gram-positive but usually occurs in pairs (diplococci) and is alpha-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis - This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci but is not typically beta-hemolytic and is not commonly associated with sore throat infections. D: Staphylococcus aureus - This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci but usually occurs in clusters and

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.