After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine. What drug could cause such changes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three choices, Clostridium botulinum, Morbillivirus morbillorum, and Clostridium tetani, can cause infections of the CNS. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, affecting the nervous system. Morbillivirus morbillorum can cause measles, which can lead to encephalitis. Clostridium tetani can cause tetanus, affecting the central nervous system. Therefore, all three choices can cause infections of the CNS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each pathogen can cause CNS infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Actinomycotic granules are colonies of actinomycetes located in purulent secretions. Step 2: Actinomycosis is a disease caused by actinomycetes forming these granules. Step 3: Actinomycotic granules are typically found in tissue exudates or pus. Step 4: Therefore, choice C is correct as it accurately describes actinomycotic granules. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because actinomycotic granules are not a form of actinomycosis itself, but a characteristic of the disease. Choice B is incorrect as actinomycotic granules are not an additional outer membrane but rather colonies of actinomycetes. Choice D is incorrect as actinomycotic granules are not intracellular inclusions but extracellular colonies found in purulent secretions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Break down antibiotics like penicillin. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by bacteria to inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin by breaking the beta-lactam ring. This mechanism helps bacteria resist the antibiotic's effects. The other choices are incorrect because beta-lactamase does not enhance protein synthesis, facilitate DNA replication, or transport nutrients. It specifically targets and deactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, making choice A the most appropriate answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, along with being catalase-positive and coagulase-negative, is indicative of Staphylococcus species. Staphylococcus epidermidis is commonly found on the skin, making it likely to cause wound infections. Summary: B: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. D: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diphtheria is primarily spread through respiratory droplets and physical contact with an infected person. The bacteria responsible for diphtheria is transmitted through coughing, sneezing, or sharing personal items. Swimming in contaminated water (A) does not spread diphtheria. Transmission (B) is a broad term and does not specifically address the mode of transmission for diphtheria. Contaminated food (D) is not a typical route of diphtheria transmission. Therefore, option C is the most accurate choice based on the known mode of transmission for diphtheria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, which can lead to intestinal infections. 2. Shigella flexneri causes dysentery, primarily affecting the colon. 3. Helicobacter pylori causes stomach ulcers, not intestine infections. Summary: A is correct as Salmonella typhi causes intestine infection. B and C are incorrect as they cause different gastrointestinal issues. D is incorrect as A is a valid choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Borrelia burgdorferi. This bacterium is associated with Lyme disease, a tick-borne illness. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. It causes a range of symptoms, including fever, rash, joint pain, and neurological problems. Summary: B: Clostridium botulinum is associated with botulism, a serious illness caused by a toxin produced by this bacterium. C: Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines of humans and animals, some strains can cause food poisoning. D: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, but not Lyme disease.