ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is essential for the nurse to ensure accurate and up-to-date vital signs before administering medications. By asking the NAP to record the patient's vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions about the patient's condition and prevent any potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, particularly if they are abnormal, can be dangerous. Choice B is not the best course of action as it delays the crucial step of obtaining the vital signs. Choice D is incorrect as omitting vital signs without assessment could compromise patient safety. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response to ensure patient well-being and medication safety.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is taking vital signs of a pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit. The patient asks the nurse if she has to have an HIV test. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): The nurse's best response is to inform the pregnant woman that all pregnant women must have an HIV test. This is because HIV testing is a standard part of prenatal care to prevent mother-to-child transmission. It is crucial to detect HIV early to provide appropriate treatment and prevent transmission to the baby. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: This response could lead to misinformation and potentially harm the patient and her baby. HIV testing is recommended for all pregnant women regardless of risk factors. C: While governmental guidelines may vary, it is essential for all pregnant women to undergo HIV testing to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby. D: While it is important to provide counseling and involve the patient in decision-making, in the case of HIV testing during pregnancy, it is a standard procedure that should be offered to all pregnant women to safeguard their health and that of their baby.
Question 3 of 9
A patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding has a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. She asks the nurse why she feels SOB. Which response is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hemoglobin carries oxygen to the tissues, and with a low hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL, there is insufficient oxygen-carrying capacity to meet the body's needs, leading to shortness of breath (SOB). Choice A is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen transport, not absorption. Choice C is incorrect as anemia affects oxygen delivery, not nutrient delivery. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for SOB in this scenario is the lack of oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, not lung damage from blood loss.
Question 4 of 9
Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.
Question 5 of 9
What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” After a subarachnoid block, the client must remain lying down to prevent complications like spinal headaches due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This position helps maintain adequate spinal fluid pressure. Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake is important postoperatively. Choice B is not relevant to a subarachnoid block. Choice C is important but not the most crucial instruction compared to maintaining the supine position.
Question 6 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.
Question 7 of 9
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: By suggesting daily food choices. The food pyramid helps guide a client's diet by recommending the types and proportions of food to consume daily, such as fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy. It does not specify exact servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into only four basic groups (D). The pyramid is a visual representation of a balanced diet, emphasizing variety and moderation.
Question 8 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approves standardized nursing diagnoses to guide nursing care. Acute pain is a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as it helps identify and address a patient's pain experience. It is specific, measurable, and relevant for care planning. Sore throat (A) is a symptom, not a diagnosis. Sleep apnea (C) and heart failure (D) are medical conditions, not nursing diagnoses. The focus of nursing care plans is on identifying patient responses to health conditions, which is why acute pain is the most appropriate choice.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is required when caring for a client after cardiac surgery who is at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Position lower extremities below level of heart. This intervention helps improve blood flow and perfusion to the lower extremities by utilizing gravity to assist in venous return. This is crucial for clients at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion post-cardiac surgery. A: Restricting fluid intake may lead to dehydration, which can worsen tissue perfusion. B: Ensuring the client avoids prolonged sitting is important for preventing blood clots, but it does not directly address tissue perfusion. D: Instructing the client to avoid leg exercises may hinder circulation and exacerbate issues related to tissue perfusion.