ATI RN
Fetal Development Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
After counseling with an obstetrician about infertility, a couple is advised to undergo testicular sperm aspiration. The nurse is aware that the procedure may be recommended for which infertility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Testicular sperm aspiration is a procedure to retrieve sperm directly from the testicles. Step 2: If a vasectomy reversal was unsuccessful, it means there is no sperm in the ejaculate due to the blocked vas deferens. Step 3: Testicular sperm aspiration can be recommended in such cases to retrieve sperm for assisted reproductive techniques. Summary: A: Blocked fallopian tubes do not involve male infertility; they affect female fertility. C: Poor cervical mucus production is a female factor, not male. D: Diminished sperm motility may require other treatments, not testicular sperm aspiration.
Question 2 of 5
A 37-year-old patient is being seen for her first OB appointment after having a positive pregnancy test at home. She thinks she is about 6 weeks pregnant. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for 7 years, and she has a history of three spontaneous abortions. What antepartum testing do you anticipate the provider ordering at today’s visit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a vaginal ultrasound to confirm gestation age, due date, and pregnancy viability. At the first OB appointment, confirming gestational age and viability is crucial, especially for a patient with a history of spontaneous abortions. This ultrasound will help determine the accurate due date and assess the viability of the pregnancy. Maternal assay blood tests for genetic and chromosomal disorders (choice B) are usually done later in the pregnancy, around 10-13 weeks. Nuchal translucency ultrasound (choice C) and integrated screen blood test (choice D) are typically done between 11-14 weeks and are not usually ordered at the first OB appointment.
Question 3 of 5
What is the purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in the first trimester?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: CVS is done in the first trimester to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus by obtaining a sample of cells from the placenta. This allows for genetic testing to detect conditions such as Down syndrome. Other choices are incorrect as CVS is not used to measure amniotic fluid quantity (A), confirm pregnancy (B), or assess maternal infection (D).
Question 4 of 5
A 27-year-old patient presents with injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. She was wearing her seatbelt and has multiple bruises and scrapes along her abdomen. She complains of pain 3/10 in her abdomen. She is G1P0 and is at 14 weeks’ gestation. A bedside ultrasound scan confirms that the fetus is stable and not in any distress. The patient is Rh negative, and her husband is Rh positive. What do you anticipate being the next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). In this scenario, the patient is Rh negative and her husband is Rh positive, which puts her at risk for Rh isoimmunization. Administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh-positive fetus's blood, thereby protecting future pregnancies. This intervention is crucial in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A: Obtaining a urinalysis is not indicated in this case as the patient's main concern is her abdominal pain and pregnancy status, not related to her urinalysis. Choice C: Discharging the patient without administering Rh(D) immune globulin would be inappropriate as it puts future pregnancies at risk of complications due to Rh incompatibility. Choice D: Scheduling a follow-up ultrasound is not the immediate next step. Administering Rh(D) immune globulin is the priority to
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the schedule for the OB/GYN she works for. In reviewing a patient’s chart, the nurse notes the patient is 32 weeks pregnant, has hypertension, and had a previous fetal death. What test does the nurse anticipate the provider will order?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: nonstress test. A nonstress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements. In this case, the patient's history of hypertension and previous fetal death indicate a higher risk pregnancy, making it important to monitor the baby's well-being. A contraction stress test (choice A) is not suitable for a patient with hypertension as it can induce contractions and potentially harm the baby. An amniotic fluid index (choice B) is used to evaluate amniotic fluid levels and is not specific to this patient's situation. Fetal movement count (choice D) assesses the baby's movements but does not provide real-time information on fetal well-being like a nonstress test does.