After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Questions 49

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Leadership Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assess patient C, the 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome showing signs of poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa, first. This patient's condition indicates severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which are medical emergencies requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications like renal failure or cardiovascular collapse. Assessing and addressing the patient's dehydration status and electrolyte levels are the priority to stabilize the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment and intervention compared to patient C.

Question 2 of 9

What is the main focus of health literacy initiatives?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of health literacy initiatives is to ensure that patients understand their health information. This is crucial for empowering patients to make informed decisions about their health. By promoting understanding, patients can better navigate the healthcare system and adhere to treatment plans. Improving patient communication skills (Choice B) is important, but the ultimate goal is for patients to comprehend health information. Promoting the use of medical jargon (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can hinder understanding. Reducing the use of electronic health records (Choice D) is not the main focus of health literacy initiatives, as EHRs can actually improve access to health information when used effectively.

Question 3 of 9

What quality is observed among individuals who strive to find the best way to do their job?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Motivation. Individuals who strive to find the best way to do their job are driven by a strong internal motivation to excel and improve. This motivation fuels their desire to seek out innovative and efficient methods to perform their tasks. Punctuality (A) refers to being on time and is not necessarily linked to seeking improvement. Strictness (B) implies rigid adherence to rules rather than innovation. Honesty (C) pertains to truthfulness and integrity, but it is not directly related to actively seeking the best way to do a job.

Question 4 of 9

A 54-year-old patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which admission order should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the priority in treating diabetic ketoacidosis is to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Infusing 1 liter of normal saline per hour helps to rehydrate the patient and correct electrolyte abnormalities. This initial fluid resuscitation stabilizes the patient's condition before addressing hyperglycemia with insulin therapy. Choice B is incorrect because giving sodium bicarbonate can worsen acidosis in some cases and is not the first-line treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C is incorrect because administering regular insulin by IV push can cause a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, which can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because starting a regular insulin infusion should come after fluid resuscitation to avoid hypoglycemia.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare providers to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive. Step 2: New nurse graduates need to be aware of legal requirements regarding advance directives to ensure compliance. Step 3: Educating nurses on the PSDA empowers them to advocate for patients' autonomy and informed decision-making. Step 4: Option A is correct as it aligns with legal obligations and ethical considerations related to advance directives. Summary: - Option A is correct as it pertains to legal requirements under the PSDA. - Option B is incorrect as advance directives typically focus on healthcare decisions, not financial ones. - Option C is incorrect as it refers to a living will, which is different from an advance directive. - Option D is incorrect as it confuses the role of a health-care surrogate with the purpose of an advance directive.

Question 6 of 9

A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of FTEs needed for replacing 832 benefit hours, we divide the total hours by the standard number of hours worked by a full-time employee in a year (2080 hours). Therefore, 832 / 2080 = 0.40 FTEs (Choice A). This is correct as it represents the fraction of a full-time employee needed to cover the hours. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the total hours and standard hours worked by a full-time employee.

Question 7 of 9

When preparing for a meeting to discuss the annual budget, what would be the best approach to ensure all relevant points are covered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an agenda. This approach is crucial as it helps organize the meeting, ensuring that all relevant points are covered in a structured manner. By preparing an agenda, all participants can be informed of the topics to be discussed, stay on track, and allocate appropriate time for each item. Visual aids (B) can be helpful but are not as essential as having a clear agenda. Inviting only key stakeholders (C) may limit perspectives and overlook important input. Reviewing previous budgets (D) is important but does not guarantee thorough coverage of all relevant points for the upcoming budget discussion.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following are essential components of strategic planning? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Values and Vision & Mission statements). Values guide decision-making and behavior, ensuring alignment with the organization's principles. Vision & Mission statements provide direction and purpose, outlining the organization's goals and how they will be achieved. Reengineering, as mentioned in choice C, is not an essential component of strategic planning, as it refers to restructuring processes rather than setting the overall direction. Choice A alone (Values) is not sufficient for strategic planning, as it needs to be complemented by a clear Vision & Mission. Therefore, A & B (Values and Vision & Mission statements) are the essential components for effective strategic planning.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following laws govern nursing practice?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Statutory laws. Statutory laws are enacted by legislative bodies and specifically regulate nursing practice. They outline the scope of practice, licensure requirements, and standards of care for nurses. Common laws (B) are based on court decisions and may not directly govern nursing practice. Administrative laws (C) deal with regulations set by government agencies but do not solely govern nursing practice. Constitutional laws (D) pertain to the fundamental rights and freedoms of individuals and are not specific to regulating nursing practice.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days