ATI RN
Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
After being diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease, an adult patient asks if current children are at risk for developing the disorder. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can be inherited by children if one or both parents have the gene mutation responsible for the condition. In cases where a parent has been diagnosed with PKD, their children are at risk of inheriting the faulty gene. As such, it is recommended for the children to undergo genetic testing and screening to identify any evidence of the disease early on. By identifying the gene mutation in the children, appropriate monitoring and management can be initiated, potentially leading to better outcomes and quality of life for the affected individuals. Therefore, genetic testing and screening are crucial in cases where there is a known genetic component to a disorder like PKD.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse has a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns to the arms and hands. This client has shown sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, and at times if she is overstimulated she won't speak to or look at anyone but her parents until she calms down. The nurse considers the best teaching environment for this client to be the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns with sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, along with a tendency to become overstimulated, the best teaching environment would be the client's room. This setting provides a familiar and comforting space where the client feels secure and less exposed to external stimuli that may trigger discomfort or anxiety. Being in her own room allows the client to focus better, feel more at ease, and have better communication with the nurse without distractions from bright lights, loud noises, or other people around. This controlled and peaceful environment contributes to a more effective teaching and learning experience for the client, promoting better understanding and retention of information.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a compound, open fracture of the femur is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Given that the patient has a compound, open fracture of the femur and is undergoing immediate surgery, the most critical nursing diagnosis in the immediate postoperative period would be the risk for infection. Open fractures are particularly susceptible to infection due to the exposure of the fracture site to external contaminants. Postoperative care should prioritize infection prevention measures like sterile dressing changes, administration of prophylactic antibiotics, and close monitoring for signs of infection such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the wound. Mitigating the risk of infection is crucial to prevent complications and promote optimal healing of the fracture. While the other diagnoses are relevant, addressing the risk for infection takes precedence in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is providing care to a client who has experienced several episodes of angina. Which agent does the nurse anticipate being ordered to reduce the intensity and frequency of an angina episode?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitrates are commonly prescribed for the management of angina. These agents work by dilating blood vessels, which leads to improved blood flow to the heart muscle and decreased workload on the heart. This results in reduced intensity and frequency of angina episodes by increasing oxygen supply to the heart and decreasing its demand. Nitrates can be administered sublingually, orally, or topically to provide prompt relief of chest pain during an angina episode. Thorough patient education should be provided regarding the proper use of nitrates and potential side effects.
Question 7 of 9
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
During an assessment, the nurse decides to assess a patient’s calcium level. Which action will the nurse take to identify a low calcium level?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Trousseau’s sign test is used to identify low calcium levels in a patient. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm above systolic pressure for a few minutes, which can trigger a carpal spasm (wrist and hand flexion) in patients with low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). This is due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, conducting a Trousseau’s sign test is the appropriate action to identify a low calcium level in a patient. Palpating turgor of skin, observing the color of the skin, and saving urine to measure 17-ketosteroids are not relevant actions for assessing calcium levels.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duplex venous ultrasonography is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis. It is a non-invasive imaging technique that combines Doppler flow studies with conventional ultrasonography. This allows for the visualization of blood flow in the veins and identification of any blood clots or obstructions. Duplex venous ultrasonography is highly sensitive and specific for detecting deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower extremities, making it the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing venous thrombosis. Other imaging modalities like ascending contrast venography, magnetic resonance imaging, and plethysmography are less commonly used due to their disadvantages compared to duplex venous ultrasonography such as invasiveness, cost, and lower accuracy.