ATI RN
Virtual ATI Mental Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
After assessing a patient, the nurse noted the following: he was tearful, he tried to kill himself before coming into the hospital, he had no immediate plan for another suicide attempt, he was unable to concentrate, and he reported having trouble sleeping and having little or no appetite. The nurse also noted that the patient's appearance was unkempt, that he spoke in a low monotone, and that he was unable to establish and maintain eye contact. Based on this information, which nursing diagnoses would be the most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for Suicide. Given the patient's presentation of being tearful, previous suicide attempt, inability to concentrate, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, unkempt appearance, low monotone speech, and lack of eye contact, these are all indicative of suicidal ideation and risk. The nurse should prioritize this nursing diagnosis to ensure the patient's safety. A: Ineffective Role Performance does not address the immediate risk of suicide. B: Risk for Infection is not indicated by the patient's symptoms. D: Risk for Self-Mutilation is not the priority as the patient's immediate risk is suicidal behavior.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with complex somatic symptom disorder. When assessing this client, the nurse would be especially alert for symptoms of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. In complex somatic symptom disorder, individuals experience persistent, distressing physical symptoms without an underlying medical cause. Depression commonly coexists with this disorder due to the significant emotional distress and impact on daily functioning. The nurse would be alert for symptoms of depression such as persistent sadness, lack of interest in activities, changes in appetite or sleep, and feelings of worthlessness. Summary: - A: Depression is correct as it commonly coexists with complex somatic symptom disorder due to emotional distress. - B: Avoidant personality disorder is incorrect as it is a separate personality disorder characterized by avoidance of social interactions and feelings of inadequacy. - C: Delirium is incorrect as it is an acute confusional state with altered consciousness and attention. - D: Bipolar disorder is incorrect as it is a mood disorder characterized by episodes of mania and depression.
Question 3 of 9
A female client is diagnosed with panic disorder. The client tells the nurse that she hasn't left her house in more than a month because she was afraid of another attack. She visited the mental health clinic today only because her son brought her. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Social Isolation related to fear of recurrence of anxiety symptoms. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client because her inability to leave the house due to fear of another panic attack has led to significant social isolation. This isolation can exacerbate her anxiety and impact her overall well-being. By addressing social isolation, the nurse can help the client reconnect with the community and support systems, which is crucial for managing panic disorder. Choice A (Powerlessness related to symptoms of anxiety) is incorrect because while the client may feel powerless, the immediate concern is the social isolation impacting her daily functioning. Choice B (Decisional Conflict related to fear of leaving the house) is incorrect as the client's issue is more about the consequences of not leaving the house rather than a decisional conflict. Choice C (Ineffective Family Coping related to symptoms of anxiety) is also incorrect as the focus should be on the client's own coping mechanisms and isolation rather than the family's coping strategies.
Question 4 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Assessment reveals that the client lives alone. His clothing is disheveled, his hair is uncombed and matted, and his body has a strange odor. During an interview, the client's family voices a desire for the client to live with them when he is discharged. Based on the assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis would be the priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bathing Self-Care Deficit related to symptoms of schizophrenia. The priority nursing diagnosis should address the most immediate and essential need for the client's well-being. In this case, the client's disheveled appearance, uncombed and matted hair, and strange odor indicate a lack of self-care in terms of personal hygiene, specifically bathing. This can lead to physical health issues and negatively impact the client's self-esteem and social interactions. Addressing the bathing self-care deficit is crucial to improving the client's overall health and well-being. A: Ineffective Role Performance related to symptoms of schizophrenia - While this is a valid concern, addressing the client's basic self-care needs should take precedence over role performance. B: Social Isolation related to auditory hallucinations - While social isolation is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the client's personal hygiene needs. C: Dysfunctional Family Processes related to psychosis - While involving the family is important, the priority
Question 5 of 9
"QSEN" refers to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). This is because QSEN is an initiative that focuses on improving the quality and safety of healthcare by providing education and resources for nurses. It aims to prepare nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes necessary to enhance patient outcomes and reduce medical errors. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately represent the purpose of QSEN. Choice C is incorrect as it does not mention the focus on safety and quality in nursing care. Choice D is incorrect as it does not capture the comprehensive nature of the QSEN initiative.
Question 6 of 9
A forensic nurse examiner is interviewing an individual accused of a homicide. Which question should the nurse ask in preparation for a possible legal insanity defense?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking about hallucinations is crucial for assessing the individual's mental state. Hearing voices that no one else can hear may indicate a psychotic disorder, which could be relevant for an insanity defense. Choice A is irrelevant to legal insanity defense as intellectual deficiency is not the same as legal insanity. Choice C focuses on the crime but does not directly address the individual's mental state. Choice D is also irrelevant to the legal insanity defense as knowing the victim does not determine legal sanity.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic stress for the past month because of job loss and financial difficulties. When evaluating the patient's assessment findings, the nurse would anticipate finding an elevated antibody titer to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Herpes simplex viruses. Chronic stress can weaken the immune system, leading to increased susceptibility to viral infections. Elevated antibody titers to herpes simplex viruses would be expected due to the reactivation of latent infections during periods of stress. The other choices (B: Herpes zoster viruses, C: Acquired immune deficiency viruses, D: Influenza viruses) are less likely to be affected by chronic stress in the same way as herpes simplex viruses. Herpes zoster viruses typically reactivates due to decreased immunity in older age, acquired immune deficiency viruses are related to HIV infection, and influenza viruses are more commonly associated with acute infections rather than chronic stress.
Question 8 of 9
A 4-year-old grabs toys from other children and says, 'I want that now!' From a psychoanalytic perspective, this behavior is a product of impulses originating in which system of the personality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Id. According to psychoanalytic theory by Freud, the Id is the primitive and instinctual part of the mind that operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of needs and desires without considering consequences. In this scenario, the child grabbing toys impulsively and demanding immediate satisfaction aligns with the characteristics of the Id. The Ego, on the other hand, mediates between the Id and the external world, considering reality and consequences. The Superego represents internalized societal and parental values, regulating moral and ethical behavior. The Preconscious refers to thoughts that are not currently in awareness but can be easily brought to consciousness.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client for moral development. What statement by the client indicates the client is in the preconventional stage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it reflects the preconventional stage of moral development where individuals are focused on avoiding punishment and seeking rewards. In this stage, people adhere to rules to avoid negative consequences. A: This statement indicates adherence to rules to avoid negative consequences, which aligns with the preconventional stage. B: This statement shows empathy and understanding of others' struggles, indicating a higher level of moral development. C: This statement suggests a questioning of societal rules based on fairness, indicating a move towards the conventional stage. D: This statement emphasizes societal rules for safety and civility, showing a higher level of moral reasoning beyond the preconventional stage. In summary, choice A is correct because it aligns with the characteristics of the preconventional stage, while choices B, C, and D reflect higher stages of moral development.