ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
After assessing a patient, a nurse develops a standard formal nursing diagnosis. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing a standard formal nursing diagnosis helps nurses focus on the scope of their practice. By identifying specific patient problems and their potential causes, nurses can provide appropriate interventions and evaluate patient outcomes effectively. This process enhances the quality of care delivery and promotes patient safety. A: This is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are not meant to be a language exclusive to nurses but rather a standardized way to communicate patient data. B: This is incorrect as nursing diagnoses are not about distinguishing roles but rather about identifying and addressing patient problems. C: This is incorrect as nursing diagnoses are based on evidence and critical thinking, not solely on intuition.
Question 2 of 9
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is highly indicative of breast cancer. This finding suggests an invasive tumor pulling on the skin, causing dimpling. Other choices are incorrect because slight breast asymmetry (A) is common, bloody nipple discharge (C) can be benign or due to other conditions, and multiple freely movable masses (D) are more indicative of benign breast conditions like fibrocystic changes.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain patient safety when ambulating a patient for the first time postoperatively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use two people to assist the patient. This is the safest option as it provides optimal support and stability for the patient during their first postoperative ambulation. Two people can help prevent falls, ensure proper body mechanics, and offer immediate assistance if needed. Using one person (choice A) may not provide enough support. Encouraging the patient to "dangle" (choice C) may increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Giving a narcotic before ambulation (choice D) can impair the patient's balance and coordination, increasing the risk of falls.
Question 4 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature. Rationale: 1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. 2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. 3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Summary: Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because focusing on the patient's presenting situation is the first step in the problem-oriented approach. This allows the nurse to gather relevant data related to the current health issue, which is crucial for identifying the problem and formulating a care plan. Option A is incorrect as chronological order may not prioritize the most critical data. Option C is incorrect as interpretations come after data collection. Option D is incorrect as observation typically follows data collection and analysis. Focusing on the patient's presenting situation ensures efficient and effective data collection for problem-solving.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse who collected and organized data during a client history realizes that there is not enough information to plan interventions. Which of the following would be the best remedy to prevent this from happening in the future?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The nurse should practice interviewing strategies. This is the best remedy because improving the nurse's ability to gather comprehensive information during client history will ensure sufficient data for planning interventions. By practicing interviewing strategies, the nurse can learn to ask relevant questions, actively listen, and probe for additional details. Summary: B: Modifying the data collection tool may not address the issue of insufficient information if the problem lies with how the nurse conducts the interview. C: Determining the specific purpose of data collection is important but may not solve the immediate issue of lacking information for intervention planning. D: Updating the database is irrelevant to the problem of inadequate data collection during client history.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff must the nurse consider when administering IV fluids to clients with hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because monitoring the site and progress of the infusion every hour is crucial to prevent complications like infiltration or infection in clients with hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as checking BP every hour is excessive. Choice C is incorrect as daily monitoring may not detect issues promptly. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rate monitoring is not directly related to IV fluid administration in this context. Monitoring the site and progress hourly ensures timely intervention if any issues arise.
Question 8 of 9
A client with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count of 8,000/ul develops epistaxis and melena. Treatment with corticosteroids and immunoglobulins has been unsuccessful, and the physician recommends a splenectomy. The client states, “I don’t need surgery-this will go away on its own”. In considering her response to the client, the nurse must depend on the ethical principle of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. In this scenario, the client is expressing her desire to not undergo surgery, which is her right as an autonomous individual. The nurse must respect her decision even if it goes against medical advice. Beneficence (A) is the ethical principle of doing good for the patient, but in this case, respecting the client's autonomy takes precedence. Advocacy (B) involves supporting the client's best interests, which could align with autonomy in this case. Justice (D) refers to fairness and equal treatment, but it is not directly applicable to the client's decision regarding surgery.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 20mL/hour. This is a critical finding after kidney transplant surgery as it indicates potential kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Decreased urine output can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening. Immediate physician notification is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate danger. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L is slightly elevated but not critical. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) is within normal limits for postoperative care. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L is also normal and does not warrant immediate physician notification.