ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
After an open lung biopsy, a nurse assesses a client. Which assessment finding is matched with the correct intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reduced breath sounds after an open lung biopsy could indicate a potential complication like pneumothorax. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to call the physician immediately for further assessment and intervention. This prompt action can help prevent worsening of the client's condition and ensure timely treatment. Choice A is incorrect because applying oxygen and pulse oximetry is not directly addressing the potential complication of reduced breath sounds. Choice B is incorrect because withholding pain medication based solely on a low heart rate is not appropriate without further assessment. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing oxygen flow rate without proper assessment could be harmful if the client is experiencing respiratory distress.
Question 2 of 9
When planning care, what factors should the nurse consider when utilizing evidence-based practice (EBP)? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cost-saving measures. When utilizing evidence-based practice, the nurse should prioritize providing care based on research findings, considering client preferences, and leveraging their expertise. Cost-saving measures should not be the primary factor influencing care decisions as the focus should be on delivering the most effective and appropriate care based on evidence. Ignoring research findings, client preferences, or the nurse's expertise could compromise the quality of care provided. Thus, cost-saving measures are not a factor to consider when planning care with evidence-based practice.
Question 3 of 9
A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. High potassium levels in ESRD patients can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate action is needed to prevent complications. A: Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, but it's not an immediate concern. B: Blood pressure is elevated but not an urgent issue. D: Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the acceptable range for ESRD patients and does not require immediate action.
Question 4 of 9
When assessing a client with anxiety disorder, what does the nurse observe for evidence of various levels of anxiety?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Excessive talking may indicate heightened anxiety as the client attempts to distract themselves from their worries.
Question 5 of 9
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing for signs of bleeding. This is the priority assessment because heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding. Signs of bleeding include bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, and excessive bleeding from wounds. Monitoring blood pressure (A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking aPTT (B) is important for evaluating the effectiveness of heparin therapy but does not take precedence over assessing for bleeding. Measuring calf circumference (D) is used to detect changes in calf size due to DVT but is not the priority assessment while the client is on heparin therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A 54-year-old client has cholelithiasis and is admitted for an elective cholecystectomy. The client is 5 feet 3 inches tall, weighs 205 pounds, and has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 35 years. The client will be NPO at midnight. When the client's spouse asks why the client cannot have breakfast the morning before surgery, the nurse should explain:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client's size has nothing to do with an NPO status. Clients are at greatest risk for aspiration and vomiting during surgery when food and/or liquids are in the stomach. Preparation on the morning of surgery is time consuming, but it does not affect a client's NPO status. The gallbladder lies under the surface of the liver and is a part of the biliary tract, not the intestinal tract. Cholecystectomy does not involve the intestinal tract or its contents.
Question 7 of 9
What correctly describes pursed-lip breathing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing involves slow exhalation to prolong expiration and improve airflow.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Left-sided heart failure leads to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing crackles on auscultation. This indicates pulmonary congestion. Peripheral edema (A) is more common in right-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention (B) is typically seen in right-sided heart failure due to increased venous pressure. Hepatomegaly (C) is more common in conditions like liver disease, not specifically left-sided heart failure.
Question 9 of 9
What is a typical parasomnia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sleep terrors are a classic example of parasomnias, which are abnormal behaviors during sleep. Cataplexy (A) is associated with narcolepsy, hypopnea (B) refers to shallow breathing, and sleep apnea (C) involves breathing interruptions.