After administering the drug Atropine to a patient, the nurse notices side effects of dry mouth, tachycardia, and drowsiness. The nurse suspects ans overdose of the drug. Which of the following is the antidote for Atropine?

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ATI Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 A Questions

Question 1 of 5

After administering the drug Atropine to a patient, the nurse notices side effects of dry mouth, tachycardia, and drowsiness. The nurse suspects ans overdose of the drug. Which of the following is the antidote for Atropine?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Physostigmine is the antidote for Atropine overdose. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine. Physostigmine works by increasing the levels of acetylcholine in the body, counteracting the effects of Atropine. It can help reverse the side effects of Atropine overdose, such as dry mouth, tachycardia, and drowsiness. Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines, Naloxone is the antidote for opioids, and Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.

Question 2 of 5

The following drugs can induce malignant hyperthermia:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Succinylcholine is a trigger for malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals due to its effects on calcium release in muscle cells.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following does not describe intravenous injection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The statement "Convenient, safe, economical" does not accurately describe intravenous injection. Intravenous injection is generally considered to be less convenient compared to other routes of administration due to the need for proper training, sterile technique, and close monitoring during drug administration. While it can be effective in delivering drugs quickly and directly into the bloodstream, it is not always the safest or most economical option. Intravenous administration carries risks such as infection, phlebitis, and possible adverse reactions that need to be carefully monitored. Additionally, the cost of intravenous drug administration tends to be higher due to the need for specialized equipment and trained personnel.

Question 4 of 5

Which statement is accurate concerning the use of aspirin (ASA) to treat pain?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Aspirin's use for pain involves anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties, but it risks GI irritation. Enteric-coated capsules minimize this by dissolving in the intestine, not the stomach, reducing bleeding risk—an accurate statement. High doses are true for anticoagulation, not pain relief, where lower doses suffice. Herbs like garlic and ginger increase bleeding risk, not inflammation relief, making it dangerous advice. Low doses (choice D, 325 mg) primarily prevent clotting, not significantly reduce inflammation, which requires higher doses. Choice B correctly reflects a practical measure to enhance aspirin's safety profile for pain management.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause vasospasm?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bromocriptine, a dopamine D2 agonist used in Parkinson's, has ergot alkaloid properties, which can cause vasospasm by stimulating vascular smooth muscle receptors, occasionally leading to Raynaud's-like symptoms or digital ischemia. Amantadine, an NMDA antagonist, enhances dopamine release but lacks vasoconstrictive effects. Carbidopa inhibits dopa decarboxylase, aiding levodopa delivery without vascular impact. Entacapone, a COMT inhibitor, extends levodopa's duration but doesn't affect vessels. Ropinirole, a non-ergot agonist, avoids vasospasm. Bromocriptine's ergot-derived vasoconstriction, though rare, distinguishes it among antiparkinsonian drugs, requiring caution in patients with vascular risks.

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