ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
After a Whippie procedure for cancer of the pancreas, a client is to receive the following intravenous (IV) fluids over 24 hours; 1000 ml D5W; 0.5 liter normal saline; 1500 ml D5NS. In addition, an antibiotic piggyback in 50 ml D5W is ordered every 8 hours. The nurse calculates that the clients IV fluid intake Tor 24 hours will be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (3750ml) because the client will receive 1000ml D5W + 500ml normal saline + 1500ml D5NS + 50ml antibiotic every 8 hours x 3 times in 24 hours (50ml x 3 = 150ml). Adding these together gives a total of 1000ml + 500ml + 1500ml + 150ml = 3150ml. Therefore, the client's IV fluid intake for 24 hours will be 3150ml.
Question 2 of 9
Approximately how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 500 ml. When someone loses 0.5 kg of weight, it is estimated that about 500 ml of fluid has been lost, as 1 kg of body weight is roughly equivalent to 1 liter of fluid. This fluid loss is due to water loss through sweating, breathing, and urine. Choice A (50 ml) is too small of an amount for a significant weight loss. Choice B (750 ml) is too high and would correspond to a larger weight loss. Choice D (75 ml) is also too small to account for a 0.5 kg weight loss.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a client with a cerebellar brain tumor may experience impaired balance due to the cerebellum's role in coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and other injuries. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures are not directly related to the cerebellum's functions in balance and coordination. Therefore, these choices are incorrect for this specific nursing diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing frequent mouth care to Mr. Franco is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting oral hygiene. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for mouth care in this case is to address the physical consequences of a seizure, such as tongue biting and potential injury, rather than thirst, tactile stimulation, or prevention of oral mucosal issues related to mouth breathing in a comatose patient.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has chronic respiratory acidosis related to long-standing lung disease. Which of the following problems is the cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoventilation. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot effectively eliminate carbon dioxide, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, causing acidosis. Hypoventilation results in decreased removal of CO2, exacerbating the acidosis. A: Hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. B: Loss of acid by kidneys would result in metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis. D: Loss of base by kidneys would lead to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis. In summary, the main issue in chronic respiratory acidosis is inadequate elimination of CO2 due to hypoventilation, leading to acidosis.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted who has had severe vomiting for 24 hours. She states that she is exhausted and weak. The results of an admitting ECG show flat T waves and ST segment depression. Choose the most likely potassium (K ) value for this patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2.0mEq/L. Severe vomiting can lead to hypokalemia, characterized by flat T waves and ST segment depression on ECG. This is due to decreased potassium levels affecting cardiac repolarization. A potassium level of 2.0mEq/L is dangerously low and consistent with the ECG findings in this scenario. Choices A, C, and D have potassium levels that are not reflective of severe hypokalemia, therefore they are incorrect. Option A (4.0mEq/L) is within the normal range, option C (8.0mEq/L) is elevated, and option D (2.6mEq/L) is higher than the correct value of 2.0mEq/L.
Question 7 of 9
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with multiple myeloma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing bone injury. In multiple myeloma, bone lesions are common due to bone destruction by abnormal plasma cells. Preventing bone injury is crucial to avoid fractures and bone pain. This can be achieved through careful handling, fall prevention, and avoiding activities that may increase the risk of bone damage. Monitoring respiratory status (A) is not the priority in multiple myeloma. Balancing rest and activity (B) is important but not as critical as preventing bone injury. Restricting fluid intake (C) is not typically necessary unless there are specific indications like renal issues.
Question 8 of 9
A client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective individual coping related to diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because crying whenever diabetes is mentioned indicates emotional distress, a key component of ineffective coping. This response suggests the client is overwhelmed by the diagnosis, affecting their ability to cope effectively. In contrast, choices A, B, and C focus more on physical aspects and management of diabetes, not coping mechanisms. Weight gain could be related to poor diet or medication side effects, skipping insulin doses might indicate non-adherence, and failure to monitor blood glucose could be due to lack of knowledge or resources. Overall, D is the best choice as it directly relates to the client's emotional response to the diagnosis.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the medication of choice for anaphylaxis that the nurse should anticipate would be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.