ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
After a Whippie procedure for cancer of the pancreas, a client is to receive the following intravenous (IV) fluids over 24 hours; 1000 ml D5W; 0.5 liter normal saline; 1500 ml D5NS. In addition, an antibiotic piggyback in 50 ml D5W is ordered every 8 hours. The nurse calculates that the clients IV fluid intake Tor 24 hours will be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (3750ml) because the client will receive 1000ml D5W + 500ml normal saline + 1500ml D5NS + 50ml antibiotic every 8 hours x 3 times in 24 hours (50ml x 3 = 150ml). Adding these together gives a total of 1000ml + 500ml + 1500ml + 150ml = 3150ml. Therefore, the client's IV fluid intake for 24 hours will be 3150ml.
Question 2 of 9
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions would a nurse perform to avoid maceration from irritating drainage or the wound compresses in a client with breast abscess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply zinc oxide to the surrounding skin. This intervention helps create a protective barrier between the irritating drainage or wound compresses and the skin, thus preventing maceration. Zinc oxide has moisture-repelling properties that can help keep the skin dry and reduce the risk of maceration. Choice B (Using a binder) may not address the root cause of maceration and could potentially increase pressure on the wound site. Choice C (Supporting the arm and shoulder with pillows) may provide comfort but does not directly prevent maceration. Choice D (Instructing the client not to shave axillary hair) is unrelated to preventing maceration from irritating drainage or wound compresses.
Question 4 of 9
While receiving radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer, a client complains of dysphagia and skin texture changes, at the radiation site. Which of the following instructions would be most appropriate to suggest to minimize the risk of complications, and promote healing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat a diet high in protein and calories to optimize tissue repair. Rationale: 1. Protein is essential for tissue repair and healing, which can help counteract the effects of radiation therapy on the skin and swallowing function. 2. Calories are necessary for energy to support the body's healing processes during radiation therapy. 3. A diet high in protein and calories can help maintain overall nutritional status and promote recovery. Incorrect Choices: A: Washing the radiation site vigorously can further irritate the skin, leading to more complications. C: Cool compresses may not be suitable for radiation-induced skin reactions and may not address the underlying issue of dysphagia. D: Drinking warm fluids may not directly address the need for optimal tissue repair and healing.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassess the patient and situation. The nurse should reassess to determine the cause of the pressure ulcer, evaluate the effectiveness of the current turning schedule, and identify any contributing factors. This allows for a more targeted intervention plan. B: Incorrect. Simply increasing the frequency of turning may not address the underlying issue causing the pressure ulcer. C: Incorrect. Delegating turning to nursing assistive personnel without reassessment may not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. D: Incorrect. Applying medication without reassessment may not address the underlying cause of the pressure ulcer and could potentially worsen the condition.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. RR is being prepared for surgery. Nursing care would include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Assessment of neurologic signs establishes baseline for post-op care. 2. Helps detect any changes post-surgery. 3. Enables prompt intervention if any issues arise. 4. Planning activities (B) is not a priority pre-surgery. 5. Enema (C) may not be necessary for all surgeries. 6. Explaining complications (D) is important but not a primary pre-op nursing care.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink, frothy sputum. This is because pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. Furosemide IV is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. Resolving pink, frothy sputum indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing the fluid in the lungs. Incorrect choices: A: Pedal edema - This refers to swelling in the feet and ankles, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema. C: Jugular vein distention - This is a sign of heart failure, not specifically pulmonary edema. D: Bradycardia - This is a slow heart rate and not a direct indicator of pulmonary edema resolution.
Question 8 of 9
At a public health fair, the nurse teaches a group of women about breast cancer awareness. Possible signs of breast cancer include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nipple discharge and a breast nodule are classic signs of breast cancer. Nipple discharge can be bloody or clear, and a breast nodule is a lump that feels different from the surrounding tissue. Fever (choice A) is not a common sign of breast cancer. Breast changes during menstruation (choice C) are normal hormonal fluctuations. Fever and erythema of the breast (choice D) are more indicative of an infection rather than breast cancer. Therefore, choice B is the most relevant sign of breast cancer among the options provided.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who is suspected of having hypothyroidism should be expected which of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, extreme fatigue, for a patient suspected of having hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is associated with decreased production of thyroid hormones, leading to a slower metabolism and reduced energy levels. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and lethargy. Tachycardia (A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid is overactive. Hyperthermia (B) is increased body temperature, not typically a symptom of hypothyroidism. Weight loss (C) is also more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolism. In summary, extreme fatigue is a hallmark symptom of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels, distinguishing it from the other choices.