ATI RN
Age Specific Care Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
After a rape victim visited a rape crisis counselor weekly for 8 weeks, which finding best demonstrates that reorganization was successful?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the absence of signs or symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder indicates successful reorganization after therapy. This demonstrates that the victim has effectively processed and coped with the trauma. Choice B indicates lingering somatic reactions, C suggests ongoing self-esteem issues, and D implies unresolved trauma manifesting in nightmares, all of which do not reflect successful reorganization.
Question 2 of 5
A client, age 42, has been battered by her husband since they were married 8 years ago. Until this hospitalization for major depression, she had avoided dealing with her situation, but she now expresses a desire to deal with the problem. The attacks are occurring more often. Which outcome is realistic for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verbalizing an awareness of her increasingly dangerous situation. This choice is the most realistic outcome for the client as it shows an initial step towards acknowledging the severity of her situation. By verbalizing awareness, the client can begin to understand the potential dangers she faces, which is crucial for developing a safety plan and seeking appropriate help. Choice A is incorrect as it may lead to victim-blaming and does not address the root cause of the abuse. Choice C is premature as setting a goal date for divorcing her husband requires careful planning and consideration of various factors. Choice D is inappropriate as retaliation can escalate the violence and put the client at further risk. In summary, choice B is the best option as it focuses on increasing the client's awareness of her situation, which is a crucial first step towards addressing and eventually overcoming the abusive relationship.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following should the nurse use as a basis for explaining the etiology of Alzheimer's disease to the family of a client with this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia that is characterized by the presence of beta-amyloid protein in neurons leading to the formation of senile plaques. This explanation is accurate as it describes the key pathological process underlying Alzheimer's disease. Choice A is incorrect because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia, not a secondary dementia. Choice C is incorrect because the etiology of Alzheimer's disease is not related to diet or toxic substances, so it is not treatable in that way. Choice D is incorrect because while Alzheimer's disease is irreversible, it is not treatable with antihypertensive medications as these medications are not effective in managing the disease process of Alzheimer's.
Question 4 of 5
An 85-year-old client with dementia has a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficit: bathing, hygiene. She lives at home and has not bathed for a month. Her 67-year-old daughter states that she thinks her mother may have forgotten how to take a shower. An appropriate outcome would be that the client will:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bathe twice weekly with assistance. This outcome is appropriate because it takes into account the client's dementia and self-care deficit while also promoting hygiene and independence. Daily bathing may be overwhelming for the client and may not be necessary for maintaining good hygiene. Allowing the nurse to totally manage hygiene (choice C) may not promote the client's independence. Remaining free of skin diseases/lesions (choice D) is important but may not directly address the self-care deficit. Bathe twice weekly with assistance strikes a balance between promoting hygiene and respecting the client's abilities and limitations.
Question 5 of 5
An elderly female client on the mental unit suddenly becomes upset because she can't remember where she is and she says, 'I can't think straight.' The staff has never witnessed this behavior in the client, and this type of complaint is not documented in the nursing history. What is the client most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Delirium. Delirium is characterized by sudden onset confusion, disorientation, and impaired cognitive function. In this scenario, the elderly client's sudden confusion and inability to think straight suggest an acute change in mental status, which is indicative of delirium. Delirium is often triggered by underlying medical conditions or medications. A: Hallucinations involve perceiving things that are not real, which is not described in the scenario. B: Dementia is a chronic condition with gradual cognitive decline, not sudden onset confusion. C: Delusions are fixed false beliefs, which are not mentioned in the scenario. In summary, the client is most likely experiencing delirium due to the sudden onset of confusion and cognitive impairment, which is not consistent with hallucinations, dementia, or delusions.