Adverse reactions from non-cardio-selective beta blockers include which of the following? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increases heart rate. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers block beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, leading to unopposed alpha receptor stimulation, causing increased heart rate. Choice A is incorrect as beta blockers typically lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as beta blockers can cause bradycardia, not sinus bradycardia specifically. Choice D is incorrect because non-cardio-selective beta blockers can exacerbate asthma due to beta-2 receptor blockade.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Captopril. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause neutropenia as a rare side effect by suppressing bone marrow function. Metoprolol (A) is a beta-blocker and does not typically cause neutropenia. Lisinopril (C) is also an ACE inhibitor, but it is less likely to cause neutropenia compared to captopril. Guanfacine (D) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is not associated with neutropenia. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and side effect profile, captopril is the most likely medication to have caused neutropenia in the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly. Incorrect choices: A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin. D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The client developing hemorrhaging and a low platelet count while on an ADP receptor blocker suggests thrombotic thrombocytopenia. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a rare but serious adverse effect characterized by the formation of blood clots and a decrease in platelet count. This condition can lead to both bleeding and clotting issues, explaining the hemorrhaging and low platelet count in the client. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: The low platelet count is not an anticipated reaction to taking an ADP receptor blocker. While some antiplatelet medications can cause decreased platelet count, thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a more specific and severe condition. B: The combination of ADP receptor blockers with aspirin is a common therapy for preventing cardiovascular events but does not directly explain the development of thrombotic thrombocytopenia. D: Simply taking too much of the ADP receptor blocker

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Statin drugs. Niacin can increase the risk of myopathy when used with statins. Statins are known to cause muscle-related side effects, and combining them with niacin can further exacerbate this risk. Aspirin (A), Theophylline (C), and Digoxin (D) do not have significant drug-drug interactions with niacin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the known interaction between niacin and statin drugs leading to an increased risk of myopathy.