Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this quiz question, the correct answer is option D: Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization. Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, raises blood glucose levels through various mechanisms. Adrenaline stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose (hepatic glycogenolysis) and promotes the release of glucose into the bloodstream. It also enhances the release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells, which further increases blood glucose levels. Additionally, adrenaline inhibits insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, which would normally promote the uptake of glucose by peripheral tissues. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they describe actions that adrenaline actually does take to raise blood glucose levels. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis (option A) increases the availability of glucose in the blood. Inhibiting insulin secretion (option B) prevents the uptake of glucose by cells, leading to higher blood glucose levels. Augmenting glucagon secretion (option C) also contributes to elevating blood glucose levels. Understanding the effects of adrenaline on blood glucose regulation is important in the context of pharmacology and clinical practice. Nurses, pharmacists, and other healthcare professionals need to be aware of how drugs like adrenaline can impact glucose levels, especially in patients with diabetes or other conditions affecting blood sugar regulation. This knowledge is crucial for safe and effective medication administration and management of patients' overall health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this quiz question about sildenafil, the correct answer is C) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile dysfunction in men. Sildenafil, commonly known as Viagra, is a medication specifically indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction in men. It works by increasing blood flow to the penis, which helps to achieve and maintain an erection during sexual stimulation. Option A is incorrect because while sildenafil may enhance sexual performance by aiding in achieving an erection, it is not intended to enhance sexual enjoyment in normal men. Option B is also incorrect as sildenafil is not used to delay ejaculation; it is focused on erectile dysfunction. Option D is incorrect because sildenafil does not block cavernosal α2 adrenoceptors; it acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5 enzyme. In an educational context, it is important for learners to understand the specific indications and mechanisms of action of medications like sildenafil to ensure safe and effective use in clinical practice. Understanding the correct applications of drugs is crucial in providing quality patient care and avoiding potential medication errors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this quiz question, the correct answer is D) Atenolol. Atenolol is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion, making it the correct choice for this question. Propranolol (option A) is primarily metabolized by the liver, not eliminated by renal excretion. Metoprolol (option B) is also metabolized in the liver and excreted via the kidneys, but not primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion. Alprenolol (option C) is metabolized in the liver and excreted in both urine and feces, not primarily via renal excretion. Educationally, understanding how different drugs are eliminated from the body is crucial in pharmacology. Atenolol's primary renal excretion pathway is a key characteristic that differentiates it from other ß-adrenergic blockers. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing medications, considering factors such as renal function in patients. Understanding drug elimination pathways also helps in predicting potential drug interactions and adverse effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Pancuronium. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocker that has a prominent antivagal action. This means that it helps prevent the activation of the vagus nerve, which can lead to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and other cardiac issues during surgery or other procedures. Option B) Vecuronium and Option C) Atracurium are neuromuscular blockers that do not have prominent antivagal actions like Pancuronium. They primarily act on skeletal muscle to induce paralysis for procedures requiring muscle relaxation. Option D) Gallamine triethiodide is also a neuromuscular blocker, but it is not specifically known for its antivagal action. It is more commonly used in research settings rather than clinical practice. Understanding the mechanisms of action of different peripheral nervous system drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially anesthesiologists and surgical teams. Knowing which medications have specific effects, such as antivagal actions, can help in selecting the most appropriate drug for a given situation to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) 4-aminopyridine. 4-aminopyridine is a potassium channel blocker that enhances the evoked release of acetylcholine by prolonging the action potential duration at nerve terminals. This leads to increased calcium influx and subsequent release of acetylcholine, ultimately enhancing neurotransmission. Option B) Vesamicol is incorrect because it is actually an acetylcholine storage inhibitor. It inhibits the vesicular acetylcholine transporter, leading to decreased release of acetylcholine. Option C) Magnesium ion is incorrect because it acts as a calcium channel blocker, which would inhibit the release of acetylcholine by reducing calcium influx into the nerve terminals. Providing this educational context helps students understand the mechanism of action of these drugs in the context of the peripheral nervous system. Understanding how different drugs affect neurotransmitter release is crucial in pharmacology and neurology, as it impacts the treatment of various neurological conditions such as myasthenia gravis or Lambert-Eaton syndrome.