Adolescents often display fluctuations in mood along with undeveloped emotional regulation and poor tolerance for frustration. Emotional and behavioral control usually increases over the course of adolescence due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Adolescence is marked by significant neurodevelopmental changes that influence emotional regulation and behavioral control. The correct answer, **B: Cerebellum maturation**, is supported by research showing that the cerebellum, traditionally associated with motor coordination, also plays a critical role in cognitive and emotional processes. During adolescence, the cerebellum undergoes substantial structural and functional maturation, including synaptic pruning and increased connectivity with prefrontal regions. These changes enhance the brain's ability to integrate sensory, cognitive, and emotional information, leading to improved impulse control, emotional stability, and adaptive decision-making. Studies using neuroimaging have demonstrated that cerebellar development correlates with better emotional regulation and reduced impulsivity as adolescents transition into adulthood. **A: Limited executive function** is incorrect because executive function—encompassing skills like planning, inhibition, and working memory—is not inherently limited during adolescence. While the prefrontal cortex (responsible for executive function) is still maturing, it progressively strengthens throughout adolescence, contributing to better emotional and behavioral control. The question asks about the *increase* in control, which aligns with neurodevelopmental advances, not limitations. Describing executive function as "limited" misrepresents the dynamic growth occurring during this period. **C: Cerebral stasis and hormonal changes** is incorrect because "cerebral stasis" (a lack of change in the brain) contradicts the well-documented plasticity and reorganization of neural networks during adolescence. While hormonal changes (e.g., fluctuations in cortisol, testosterone, and estrogen) influence mood and behavior, they do not directly explain the *improvement* in emotional regulation. Hormonal surges often contribute to emotional volatility, not stability. The question focuses on developmental gains in control, which are driven by structural and functional brain maturation, not stasis. **D: A slight reduction in brain volume** is incorrect because while synaptic pruning does lead to a reduction in gray matter volume during adolescence, this process refines neural efficiency rather than diminishing capacity. The loss of excess synapses strengthens relevant neural pathways, supporting faster and more coordinated processing. However, the question specifically addresses emotional and behavioral *control*, which is more directly tied to the maturation of regulatory systems (e.g., prefrontal-cerebellar networks) than to volume reduction alone. The phrasing "slight reduction" also understates the complexity of pruning, which is a selective optimization, not a blanket decrease. The cerebellum's maturation is the most precise explanation because it directly supports the integration of cognitive and emotional processes, fostering the gradual improvement in self-regulation observed during adolescence. The other options either mischaracterize developmental processes (A, C) or overlook the functional significance of neurostructural changes (D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Schizophrenia is often associated with comorbid conditions such as alcohol use disorder, major depressive disorder, polydipsia, and metabolic syndrome. Stomach cancer is not a common associated condition with schizophrenia and would not be a typical focus of assessment in managing a patient with this mental health disorder.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Paranoia in patients with schizophrenia can lead to aggressive behaviors, including violence, which poses a significant risk of injury to others. Individuals experiencing paranoia may perceive others as threats and act defensively or aggressively in response, increasing the likelihood of harm to those around them.