Addiction is associated with the existence of:

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The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Addiction is associated with the existence of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Addiction involves both psychological and physiological components. Psychological dependence refers to the emotional reliance on a substance or behavior, while physiological dependence involves changes in the body that lead to withdrawal symptoms. Tolerance is a phenomenon where more of a substance is needed to achieve the same effects. Therefore, all of the above options are associated with addiction, making choice D the correct answer.

Question 2 of 5

Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist.It’s

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A: 1. Metoclopramide is known to block dopamine receptors, making it a dopamine antagonist. 2. This action helps in treating nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal issues by enhancing motility. 3. Therefore, the statement that Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine antagonist is TRUE. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - Incorrect, as Metoclopramide is indeed a dopamine antagonist. C: All - Incorrect, as not all the choices are correct. D: None of the above - Incorrect, as the correct answer is A.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following are compensatory mechanisms that occur during the pathogenesis of congestive heart failure EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An increase in vagal tone. In congestive heart failure, compensatory mechanisms aim to maintain cardiac output. An increase in ventricular end-diastolic volume helps to increase stroke volume. An increase in plasma catecholamines enhances contractility. Increased renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activity helps to retain fluid and increase preload. However, an increase in vagal tone would actually decrease heart rate and cardiac output, worsening heart failure. Therefore, choice C is not a compensatory mechanism in congestive heart failure.

Question 4 of 5

Angina pectoris is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because angina pectoris is defined as severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart due to coronary disease. This pain typically radiates to the left shoulder and arm due to reduced oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. Option B describes ventricular fibrillation, not angina. Option C refers to heart failure, not angina. Option D is incorrect as it includes unrelated conditions, making it an incorrect choice. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer for the definition of angina pectoris.

Question 5 of 5

Choose the vasodilator which releases NO:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (D - Sodium nitroprusside): 1. Sodium nitroprusside is a direct NO donor, releasing nitric oxide (NO) upon metabolism. 2. NO is a potent vasodilator that acts on smooth muscle to relax blood vessels. 3. This vasodilation leads to decreased systemic vascular resistance and lower blood pressure. 4. Nifedipine, Hydralazine, and Minoxidil work through different mechanisms and do not directly release NO. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. B: Hydralazine is a direct-acting vasodilator that works by relaxing arterial smooth muscle. C: Minoxidil is a direct-acting vasodilator that opens potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle.

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