Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Antidepressant. Explanation of why D is correct: When there is a blockade of noradrenaline and serotonin (5-HT) reuptake in the brain, it leads to increased concentrations of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. This increase in neurotransmitter levels helps to improve mood regulation, which is the basis of how antidepressants work. By enhancing the transmission of these monoamines, antidepressants help alleviate symptoms of depression and improve overall mood. Explanation of why others are wrong: A) Antipsychotic: Antipsychotic drugs primarily target dopamine receptors in the brain to help manage symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations and delusions. They do not primarily work by affecting noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake like antidepressants do. B) Antianxiety: Drugs used to treat anxiety disorders often target gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors to help reduce feelings of anxiety and promote relaxation. They do not primarily work by affecting noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake. C) Antiparkinsonian: Antiparkinsonian medications primarily target dopamine pathways in the brain to help manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors and rigidity. They do not primarily work by affecting noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake. Educational context: Understanding the mechanisms of action of different classes of drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses, to effectively administer medications, monitor patient responses, and educate patients about their treatment plans. Knowing how antidepressants work in the brain can help nurses provide comprehensive care to patients with depression, ensuring they receive the appropriate medications and support for their mental health needs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) with digoxin, monitoring the plasma digoxin levels is crucial for adjusting the dosage effectively. The correct answer is D) Plasma digoxin levels. This is because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range, meaning that levels must be carefully monitored to ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. By measuring the plasma digoxin levels, healthcare providers can determine if the drug is within the desired therapeutic range. Option A) Electrocardiogram is not the primary method for adjusting digoxin dosage in CHF. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the heart's electrical activity, it does not directly measure digoxin levels. Option B) Monitoring heart rate and symptoms of CHF can help assess the patient's response to digoxin therapy, but it does not provide specific information about digoxin levels in the body. Option C) Blood pressure monitoring is important in the management of CHF but is not the most direct method for adjusting digoxin dosage. Blood pressure monitoring helps assess the overall cardiovascular status of the patient but does not reflect digoxin levels. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind monitoring plasma digoxin levels in CHF patients is essential for nursing students and healthcare professionals. It emphasizes the importance of individualizing medication dosages based on therapeutic drug monitoring to optimize patient outcomes and minimize the risk of adverse effects. By grasping this concept, students can apply critical thinking skills in medication management and provide safe, evidence-based care to patients with CHF.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Na+ channel blockade. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs are categorized based on their mechanism of action, which involves blocking sodium channels in cardiac cells. By inhibiting sodium influx during depolarization, these drugs decrease the rate of rise of the action potential, thereby slowing conduction velocity and reducing excitability in cardiac tissues. This ultimately helps in stabilizing the cardiac rhythm and treating various types of arrhythmias. Option B) K+ channel opening is incorrect because class I antiarrhythmics primarily target sodium channels, not potassium channels. While potassium channels play a role in repolarization, their direct modulation is not a primary mechanism of class I drugs. Option C) Depression of impulse conduction is not the principal action of class I antiarrhythmic drugs. While they do affect impulse conduction by blocking sodium channels, this is not their primary mode of action. Option D) Prolongation of effective refractory period is a consequence of sodium channel blockade by class I antiarrhythmics, but it is not the principal action. Prolonging the effective refractory period helps in preventing re-entry of excitation waves, but this is a downstream effect of the primary mechanism of sodium channel blockade. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of antiarrhythmic drugs is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals caring for patients with cardiac arrhythmias. Knowing how these drugs work helps in making informed clinical decisions, monitoring for potential side effects, and ensuring safe and effective medication administration to patients with cardiac issues.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Minoxidil. Minoxidil is a vasodilator that is used topically to treat alopecia areata by promoting hair growth. It works by increasing blood flow to the hair follicles, which in turn stimulates hair growth. A) Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that works by relaxing blood vessels to lower blood pressure. It is not used in the treatment of alopecia areata. B) Prazosin is an alpha-blocker primarily used to treat high blood pressure and symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. It is not indicated for alopecia areata. D) Guanethidine is an antihypertensive medication that works by decreasing the release of norepinephrine. It is not used in the treatment of alopecia areata. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of different medications is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to make informed clinical decisions. Knowing the specific uses of drugs like minoxidil for alopecia areata can help in providing appropriate care to patients with this condition. It also highlights the importance of accurate medication administration and patient education regarding drug therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. In acute left ventricular failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to a backup of blood in the lungs, causing dyspnea (shortness of breath). Intravenous furosemide, a loop diuretic, works by increasing venous capacitance (expanding blood vessels) and reducing cardiac preload (the amount of blood entering the heart). By doing so, furosemide helps to decrease the amount of blood returning to the heart, reducing the workload on the heart and improving cardiac output. Option A) Producing bronchodilation is incorrect because furosemide does not directly impact bronchodilation. It primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing fluid volume. Option B) Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume is partially correct, as furosemide does promote diuresis. However, the key mechanism of action in alleviating dyspnea in acute left ventricular failure is its effect on reducing preload. Option D) Stimulating left ventricular contractility is incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect contractility. Instead, it primarily focuses on reducing fluid overload. Understanding the actions of medications like furosemide in the context of managing acute left ventricular failure is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to provide optimal care for patients experiencing cardiovascular emergencies. By grasping these concepts, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions to improve patient outcomes and manage symptoms effectively.