Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess his suicide risk. Given Adam's statement about it being better if he were not here and his recent behavioral changes, there are clear signs of potential suicidal ideation. It is crucial to prioritize assessing his immediate safety. This involves asking direct questions about suicide, assessing the presence of a suicide plan, means, and intent. This step is essential in ensuring Adam's safety and providing appropriate support and intervention if needed. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Offering vague reassurance about his promising future does not address the immediate concerns of potential suicide risk. B: Jumping to prescribing antidepressants without a thorough evaluation and risk assessment is premature and does not address the urgency of the situation. C: Speaking with his mother about getting him together with friends overlooks the seriousness of Adam's statement and the need for immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The anterior drawer test assesses the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) in the ankle. During the test, the examiner stabilizes the tibia while pulling the calcaneus forward. If there is excessive anterior translation of the talus, it indicates a positive test for ATFL laxity or rupture. This ligament is commonly injured in ankle sprains, making it a crucial test for diagnosing ligamentous injuries in the ankle. Choice A is incorrect because the calcaneofibular ligament is not specifically assessed by the anterior drawer test. Choice C is incorrect as the posterior talofibular ligament is not evaluated by this test. Choice D is incorrect as the deltoid ligament is not directly involved in the anterior drawer test assessment of the ankle.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Cobb angle measures the angle between the endplates of the most tilted vertebrae at the top and bottom of the curve in scoliosis. This is the standard method for assessing scoliosis severity. The correct answer, B, is accurate because it specifically identifies the key vertebrae involved in measuring the curvature. Choice A is incorrect because it involves the iliac crest, which is not typically used in measuring the Cobb angle. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the center of the curve, which is not a factor in determining the Cobb angle. Choice D is incorrect because it references the bottom vertebra rather than the most tilted vertebrae at the top and bottom of the curve, as required for the Cobb angle measurement.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, which originates from the C5-C7 nerve roots. Compression of the C5 nerve root would affect the function of the musculocutaneous nerve, leading to weakness in the biceps brachii muscle. The other choices, Extensor carpi radialis (ECR), Triceps brachii, and Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP), are not primarily innervated by the C5 nerve root. Therefore, weakness in these muscles would not directly correlate with compression of the C5 nerve root.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tear or avulsion of the anterior glenoid labrum. A Bankart lesion is a specific type of shoulder injury involving the anterior glenoid labrum. The labrum is a ring of fibrous tissue that surrounds the shoulder socket to provide stability. In a Bankart lesion, there is a tear or avulsion of this labrum, typically as a result of shoulder dislocation. This leads to instability of the shoulder joint. Choice B is incorrect because a compression fracture of the posterior humeral head does not involve the labrum and is not associated with Bankart lesions. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different shoulder injury known as a SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) lesion. Choice D is incorrect as it describes compression of nerves and vessels, not a Bankart lesion involving the labrum.