ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Acute inflammatory mastitis can be prevented postnatally by encouraging breastfeeding mothers to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of acute inflammatory mastitis prevention postnatally, the correct answer is to encourage breastfeeding mothers to empty the breast completely when breastfeeding (Option D). This is because incomplete emptying of the breast can lead to milk stasis, which can predispose the mother to mastitis. By ensuring that the breast is fully emptied during each feeding session, the risk of milk stasis and subsequent inflammation is reduced. Option A, using prophylactic antibiotics, is not the preferred method for preventing mastitis as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance and disrupt the natural balance of the mother's microbiome. Option B, using bras of the right size, while important for overall breast health, does not directly address the prevention of mastitis. Option C, washing the breasts thoroughly before breastfeeding, is also not recommended as it can strip the skin of natural oils and disrupt the skin barrier, making it more susceptible to infection. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to educate breastfeeding mothers on proper breastfeeding techniques, including ensuring the breast is fully emptied during feeding sessions to prevent conditions like mastitis. This empowers mothers to take active steps in maintaining their breast health and promoting successful breastfeeding outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), the most common complication is a pneumothorax, making option B the correct answer. A pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or fully. This is a critical complication in RDS as it can further compromise the already fragile respiratory status of the newborn. Option A, cerebral palsy, is not a common complication of RDS. Cerebral palsy is a group of disorders that affect movement and muscle tone, typically caused by brain damage before, during, or shortly after birth. Option C, Klumpke’s palsy, is a condition involving paralysis of the lower brachial plexus, usually occurring during childbirth. Option D, fractured ribs, may occur in severe cases of RDS due to the increased effort required for breathing, but it is not as common as pneumothorax in this context. From an educational perspective, understanding the complications of RDS is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in neonatal care. Recognizing and managing complications promptly can significantly impact the outcomes for newborns affected by RDS. This question highlights the importance of vigilance and knowledge in caring for infants with respiratory distress, emphasizing the need for prompt assessment and intervention to prevent serious complications like pneumothorax.
Question 3 of 5
Match the conditions in column A with their correct description in column B
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question from Varney's Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank focusing on pharmacology, the correct match is A) Torticollis with its description B) Damage to the sternomastoid muscles. The rationale for this is that torticollis is a condition characterized by the contraction or shortening of the sternomastoid muscle, leading to the head tilting to one side. It results from damage to the sternomastoid muscle, making option A the correct answer. Option C) Erb's palsy is not the correct match because it is a condition caused by damage to the upper brachial plexus, as indicated in option D. Erb's palsy specifically involves weakness or paralysis of the arm due to injury to the upper brachial plexus during childbirth, not the sternomastoid muscle. Educationally, understanding these conditions and their associated anatomy is crucial for healthcare professionals, including midwives, to accurately diagnose and manage patients. Knowing the specific muscles and nerves involved in each condition helps in providing appropriate care and interventions. This knowledge can also aid in preventing complications and improving outcomes for patients.
Question 4 of 5
The type of D.V.T. that is characterized by formation of non-detachable clot(s) within an inflamed vein is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and obstetrics, it is crucial to understand the different types of conditions related to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The correct answer to the question is D) Thrombophlebitis. Thrombophlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot. In this type of DVT, the clot is typically attached to the inflamed vein wall, making it potentially detachable and at risk of causing complications if dislodged. Option A) Phlebothrombosis refers to the formation of a clot in a vein without significant inflammation, so it does not fit the description given in the question. Option B) Coagulopathy is a general term for disorders of blood clotting, not specific to the formation of clots within inflamed veins. Option C) Pelviopathy is not a recognized term in the context of DVT or thrombosis. Understanding the differences between these terms is essential for healthcare professionals, especially in midwifery practice where DVT can be a serious complication. Recognizing the characteristics of thrombophlebitis can help in early identification and management of this condition to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to puerperal psychosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and mental health, understanding puerperal psychosis is crucial in the field of midwifery. The correct answer, B) Majority of the patients present with manic episodes, is supported by research indicating that puerperal psychosis often presents with symptoms of mania, such as elevated mood, impulsivity, and agitation. This is important to note as it helps differentiate puerperal psychosis from other postpartum mood disorders. Option A is incorrect because while some patients may experience depression, the majority present with manic symptoms in puerperal psychosis. Option C is incorrect as a personal history of mental disorder is not always a direct cause of puerperal psychosis, although it can be a risk factor. Option D is also incorrect as the occurrence of post-partum blues is not indicative of puerperal psychosis; post-partum blues are common and generally resolve on their own without progressing to psychosis. Educationally, understanding the nuances of puerperal psychosis is critical for midwives and healthcare providers working with postpartum individuals. By recognizing the symptoms of manic episodes as a hallmark of puerperal psychosis, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate interventions to support patients experiencing this serious condition.