ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium. Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels. Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention. Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight. Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
Question 5 of 5
A college student was admitted to the emergency department after being found unconscious by a roommate. The roommate informs emergency medical personnel that the student has diabetes and has been experiencing flulike symptoms, including vomiting, since yesterday. The patient had been up all night studying for exams. The patient used the last diabetes testing supplies 3 days ago and has not had time to go to the pharmacy to refill prescription supplies. Based upon the history, which laboratory findings would be anticipated in this client? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL. The patient likely has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to missed insulin doses, stress, and illness leading to high blood glucose levels. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. A low blood glucose level (Choice A) is not consistent with DKA. HCO3- of 10 mEq/L (Choice C) indicates metabolic acidosis, but it's not specific to DKA. A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg (Choice D) is within the normal range and not directly related to DKA.