Achalasia is a risk factor for

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. This dysfunction can lead to stagnant food in the esophagus, causing regurgitation and increased intra-esophageal pressure, which can trigger GERD. Squamous cell carcinoma (choice A) is not directly linked to achalasia. Esophageal atrophy (choice C) is not a typical consequence of achalasia. Malabsorption syndromes (choice D) are not directly associated with achalasia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Iron supplementation benefits pregnancy by correcting or preventing iron deficiency anemia in the mother. Anemia can lead to various complications for the mother and baby. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to tissues. Therefore, by reducing anemia, iron supplementation ensures optimal oxygen delivery to both the mother and the developing fetus. This ultimately supports healthy pregnancy outcomes. Explanation for other choices: A: Iron supplementation does not directly increase fetal blood flow. C: While iron deficiency may increase the risk of miscarriage, iron supplementation alone does not prevent miscarriages. D: Iron is not directly involved in fetal bone growth, so iron supplementation does not enhance this aspect of fetal development.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit. This method involves flexing the hips, extending the thighs, and applying suprapubic pressure to deliver the head in a complete breech presentation. This technique helps to avoid hyperextension of the neck and potential spinal cord injury. The Lovset maneuver (A) is used for delivering the arms in a breech presentation. The Burns Marshall method (C) involves performing an episiotomy and delivering the baby by flexion and traction on the legs. Gentle traction of the neck (D) is not recommended as it can cause spinal cord injury. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit is the preferred method for safe delivery of the head in a complete breech presentation.