ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Achalasia is a risk factor for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. This dysfunction can lead to stagnant food in the esophagus, causing regurgitation and increased intra-esophageal pressure, which can trigger GERD. Squamous cell carcinoma (choice A) is not directly linked to achalasia. Esophageal atrophy (choice C) is not a typical consequence of achalasia. Malabsorption syndromes (choice D) are not directly associated with achalasia.
Question 2 of 9
The most severe type of urinary tract trauma is that which presents with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fistula formation. Fistula formation is the most severe type of urinary tract trauma as it involves an abnormal connection between the urinary tract and another organ or the skin. This condition can lead to severe complications such as recurrent infections, incontinence, and even sepsis. Retention of urine (A) is a symptom of urinary tract obstruction, not necessarily the most severe type of trauma. Stress incontinence (B) is a common condition but is not indicative of severe trauma. Scalding sensation (C) can be a symptom of a urinary tract infection but does not necessarily indicate severe trauma like fistula formation.
Question 3 of 9
Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.
Question 4 of 9
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to minimize pain during the procedure. 2. Cleansing is crucial to remove contaminants and reduce the risk of infection. 3. Suture repair is necessary for a jagged laceration of this size to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Summary of other choices: A: Antibiotic therapy is not routinely needed for clean lacerations, and covering alone may not provide adequate wound closure. B: While wound exploration for foreign bodies is important, it is not the immediate priority for this patient with an open, flapping laceration. D: While cleansing, covering, and tetanus prophylaxis are important, antibiotic therapy is not routinely needed for clean lacerations.
Question 5 of 9
Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): 1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall. 2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus. 3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus. 4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture. C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture. D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75 of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.
Question 7 of 9
A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication. C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously. D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.
Question 8 of 9
Delivery of the head in a breech presentation is usually accomplished through
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is the correct answer for delivering the head in a breech presentation. This maneuver involves applying pressure to the fetal head with the fingers in the mouth to flex the head, guiding it through the pelvis. This technique helps prevent hyperextension of the head and facilitates a safe delivery. The Lovset maneuver involves rotating the fetus to disengage the impacted shoulder, not for delivering the head. The Burns Marshall Method is used for delivering the aftercoming head in a breech presentation. The Reverse woodscrew maneuver is a technique to disimpact a shoulder dystocia, not for delivering the head in a breech presentation.
Question 9 of 9
Classical caesarean section is indicated for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.