ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
ACE inhibitors:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin by blocking its breakdown, not decrease it, so that's false. Hyperkalemia is more common in diabetes due to renal issues, not less, making that false. They're not absolutely contraindicated with NSAIDs, though caution applies, so that's incorrect. They decrease efferent arteriolar resistance, reducing glomerular pressure, a true statement, key in renoprotection. They don't reduce prostaglandins (NSAIDs do). This hemodynamic effect is vital in hypertension and diabetic nephropathy.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse teaches a class about medication used during pregnancy to pregnant women. The nurse determines that additional instruction is required when a class participant makes which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs harm fetuses across trimesters-first (organogenesis) is critical, but later effects (e.g., growth) occur, so this needs correction. Avoiding OTC drugs is wise-many risk harm. Teratogens cause death or defects, true. Breast milk transfers drugs, also true. First-trimester-only harm misstates risk, requiring reteaching.
Question 3 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium competes with sodium-adequate salt and hydration (1-1.5 L water) prevent toxicity by aiding excretion, per pharmacokinetics. Sea salt isn't less needed-sodium's the key. Retention isn't direct-hydration matters more. Increasing salt for toxicity is reactive, not preventive. Water trumps salt, clarifying use.
Question 4 of 5
A 39-year-old man is a chronic alcoholic and is in and out of a rehabilitation center on a monthly basis. His physician administers a blocker of aldehyde dehydrogenase and the patient becomes violently ill with nausea, vomiting, chills, sweats, and hyperventilation. The same reaction occurs 1 week later after medication administration and was felt to be intolerable by the patient. Which of the following is the next best course of action to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's severe reaction to disulfiram (aldehyde dehydrogenase blocker) suggests alcohol exposure, making it intolerable. Option continues the issue. Option intentionally triggers the reaction, unethical. Option , discontinuing disulfiram and starting naltrexone, is correct-naltrexone reduces alcohol cravings via opioid receptor antagonism, offering a safer alternative. Option , alprazolam, treats anxiety but not alcoholism. Option (E), psychotherapy, lacks immediate pharmacotherapy. Naltrexone addresses the root addiction without aversive effects, aligning with the patient's intolerance and chronic relapse pattern.
Question 5 of 5
A 27-year-old man with HIV disease and hepatitis B is hospitalized for treatment of his hepatitis B. He has begun on intravenous treatment with interferon. After administration, he develops fever, chills, and myalgias. Physical examination reveals that the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. What is the most likely explanation for this reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.