ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
According to the location of flagella on their surface, bacteria can be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of these." Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at one end, amphitrichous have flagella at both ends, and peritrichous have flagella distributed all over the surface. The answer D is correct because it includes all these possibilities based on flagella location. Monotrichous is incorrect as it only refers to a single flagellum, amphitrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella at both ends, and peritrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella all over the surface. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all these options.
Question 2 of 9
A child with a persistent sore throat and fever had a smear from the throat revealing rod-shaped bacteria with dark blue polar granules. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The presence of rod-shaped bacteria with dark blue polar granules suggests the presence of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. This bacterium is known for causing sore throat and fever, and the characteristic appearance on smear helps identify it. Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice B) typically appears as chains of cocci and is associated with strep throat. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) is a small, pleomorphic Gram-negative coccobacillus and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacillus and is not typically associated with sore throat and fever in children.
Question 3 of 9
A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is
Question 4 of 9
A source of hospital-acquired infection could be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices can contribute to hospital-acquired infections. New patients in the incubation period can spread infections, medical staff can inadvertently transmit infections, and contaminated medical instruments can also be a source of infections. Therefore, it is important to consider all these factors to prevent and control the spread of infections in a hospital setting.
Question 5 of 9
Complex communities of microorganisms on surfaces are called
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms refer to complex communities of microorganisms that adhere to surfaces. They are characterized by a protective matrix that allows the microorganisms to communicate and cooperate. Colonies (A) typically refer to groups of a single species, not diverse communities. Biospheres (C) refer to the regions of the Earth where life exists, not specific microbial communities. Flora (D) generally refers to the plant life in a particular region, not microbial communities on surfaces.
Question 6 of 9
A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.
Question 7 of 9
A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.
Question 8 of 9
Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving in high salt concentrations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C: Halophiles Rationale: 1. Halophiles are bacteria adapted to high salt environments. 2. They have specific mechanisms to tolerate high salt concentrations. 3. Acidophiles thrive in acidic conditions. 4. Thermophiles prefer high temperature environments. 5. Mesophiles grow best at moderate temperatures.
Question 9 of 9
The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.