According to the CDC central venous catheters should be replaced:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Infection control is a critical aspect of healthcare to prevent healthcare-associated infections. Central venous catheters (CVCs) are commonly used in healthcare settings, and proper maintenance is essential to prevent infections. The correct answer is D) If malfunctioning. The CDC recommends that central venous catheters should only be replaced when there is a specific indication, such as malfunctioning, infection, or other complications. Routine replacement of CVCs is not recommended as it increases the risk of infection and other complications associated with catheter insertion. Option A) Every 72 to 96 hours is not recommended as routine replacement of CVCs based on a set time frame can increase the risk of catheter-related bloodstream infections. Option B) Every 7 days is also not supported by current evidence-based practice guidelines. Routine replacement at this interval is not necessary and may increase the risk of complications. Option C) After 1 month is not a recommended practice either. Again, routine replacement based on a time frame alone is not supported by evidence and can lead to unnecessary risks for patients. Educationally, it is important for healthcare providers to understand the rationale behind the recommendations for central venous catheter maintenance to ensure patient safety and reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections. Following evidence-based guidelines such as those provided by the CDC is essential in infection control practices to promote patient well-being and safety. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the specific indications for catheter replacement to make informed decisions that prioritize patient care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Send an anonymous observer to the floors to assess HH compliance. This method is the most objective and reliable way to evaluate actual behavior change resulting from the education session on hand hygiene (HH). By observing staff behavior directly, the infection preventionist (IP) can obtain real-time data on compliance rates without participants being influenced by the presence of a test (option A), job performance reviews (option B), or a survey (option D). Option A, post-test for participants, only measures knowledge retention, not actual behavior change. Option B, monitoring job performance reviews, may not specifically target HH behavior change and may not be solely attributable to the education session. Option D, conducting a survey, relies on self-reporting, which may not accurately reflect actual behavior change due to social desirability bias or inaccuracies in self-assessment. In an educational context, using direct observation aligns with best practices in evaluating behavioral changes following an educational intervention. It provides concrete data on compliance rates, allowing the IP to assess the effectiveness of the education session and make informed decisions for future educational efforts. It also enables targeted feedback and support for staff to improve HH practices based on real-world observations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Surveillance of process indicators is crucial in infection control to monitor and improve patient safety. In this scenario, option B, "The rate of hand hygiene compliance in the Bone Marrow Transplant Unit," is the correct answer. Hand hygiene compliance is a critical process indicator in infection control as it directly impacts the transmission of healthcare-associated infections. Monitoring hand hygiene rates allows healthcare facilities to identify areas for improvement and implement interventions to reduce the spread of infections. Option A, "The incidence rate of C. difficile in the Bone Marrow Transplant Unit," is not an example of surveillance on a process indicator but rather a surveillance of an outcome indicator. C. difficile incidence reflects the actual occurrence of infections, not a specific process being measured. Option C, "The number of sharp object injuries in the month of May in the Bone Marrow Transplant Unit," is also not a process indicator but rather an indicator of safety incidents. While important for patient safety, it does not directly relate to monitoring a specific infection control process. Option D, "The prevalence of vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) in the Bone Marrow Transplant unit," is an indicator of antibiotic resistance and infection prevalence but does not specifically measure a process related to infection control practices like hand hygiene compliance. Educationally, understanding the distinction between outcome and process indicators in infection control surveillance is vital for healthcare professionals to effectively monitor and improve infection prevention practices. By focusing on process indicators like hand hygiene compliance rates, healthcare facilities can proactively enhance patient safety and reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer to the question is D) Sprouts. In the 2011 outbreak in Germany and France caused by Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, sprouts were identified as the contaminated item responsible for the widely disseminated foodborne infection. Sprouts are known to be a common source of foodborne illnesses due to their cultivation environment, which provides optimal conditions for bacterial growth. Tomatoes (option A) are not typically associated with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli outbreaks, and beef (option B) is more commonly linked to other pathogens like Salmonella or E. coli O157:H7. Duck (option C) is not a common vector for Shiga toxin-producing E. coli transmission compared to other food items. In an educational context, understanding specific food items that are prone to contamination and can lead to foodborne illnesses is crucial for individuals working in food production, distribution, and food safety. By knowing the risks associated with certain foods, proper preventive measures can be implemented to reduce the likelihood of widespread outbreaks and protect public health.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D) PCV13 pneumococcal vaccine will be protective in this patient against community-acquired pneumonia. This is because patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are at increased risk for developing pneumonia, including from pneumococcal infections. PCV13 is recommended for adults with certain risk factors, such as COPD, to protect against pneumococcal disease. Option A is incorrect because Medisave deductions for the pneumococcal vaccine are not limited to children only; adults with specific medical conditions, like COPD, are also eligible for coverage. Option B is incorrect because PCV13 is a conjugate pneumococcal vaccine, not a polysaccharide vaccine. Option C is incorrect because PPV23 is a polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine, not a conjugate vaccine like PCV13. In an educational context, understanding the correct pneumococcal vaccine for patients with specific risk factors, such as COPD, is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions about vaccination to prevent serious infections like pneumonia. Providing accurate information to patients can help improve their health outcomes and reduce the burden of vaccine-preventable diseases.