According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what developmental stage?

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Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what developmental stage?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the 6-month-old infant would be in the stage of "Secondary circular reactions." This stage typically occurs between 4 to 8 months of age. In this stage, infants start to repeat actions that produce interesting results, focusing on the external world. They begin to intentionally repeat actions to trigger a response from the environment. Option A, "Use of reflexes," is incorrect because this stage, known as the Sensorimotor Stage, goes beyond basic reflex actions. It involves intentional and repeated actions to explore the environment. Option B, "Primary circular reactions," is also incorrect as this stage occurs between 1 to 4 months of age and involves the repetition of actions that initially occurred by chance, typically focused on the infant's own body. Option D, "Coordination of secondary schemata," is incorrect as it refers to a later stage in Piaget's theory when children can coordinate different schemas and use them in more complex ways to solve problems. Understanding Piaget's stages of cognitive development is crucial for healthcare professionals working with infants and children. Recognizing the developmental milestones helps in providing appropriate care, assessing growth, and identifying any potential developmental delays. It is essential for pediatric nurses preparing for the NCLEX to have a solid grasp of these stages to provide optimal care and support to pediatric patients and their families.

Question 2 of 5

Adrenal production of androgen with development of underarm odor and faint genital hair (adrenarche) may occur as early as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding normal growth and development milestones is crucial. Adrenarche, the adrenal production of androgen leading to the development of underarm odor and faint genital hair, typically occurs around 6-8 years of age. In this question, the correct answer is D) 8 years. Option A) 4 years is too early for adrenarche to occur; at this age, the child is usually still in the preschool years and not yet exhibiting signs of puberty. Option B) 5 years is also premature for adrenarche to manifest. Option C) 6 years is closer to the typical age range for adrenarche, but it is more common to see these signs around 8 years of age. Educationally, this question tests the nurse's knowledge of the normal developmental stages in pediatric patients. Understanding these milestones helps nurses assess and educate both children and their caregivers about what to expect during various stages of growth. It also aids in recognizing deviations from normal development that may require further evaluation or intervention.

Question 3 of 5

Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an average decrease in fetal weight by

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Smoking during pregnancy has been extensively studied and is known to have harmful effects on both the mother and the developing fetus. The correct answer is C) 500 g, which indicates that smoking during pregnancy is associated with an average decrease in fetal weight of 500 grams. Smoking exposes the fetus to various harmful chemicals, including nicotine and carbon monoxide, which can restrict oxygen and nutrient supply to the developing baby. This restriction can lead to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), resulting in a lower birth weight for the baby. A decrease of 500 grams in fetal weight is significant and can have long-term implications for the baby's health and development. Option A) 100 g and Option B) 200 g are too low to reflect the full impact of smoking on fetal weight. These amounts may not fully capture the extent of growth restriction that can occur with maternal smoking during pregnancy. Option D) 400 g is closer to the correct answer but still underestimates the average decrease in fetal weight associated with smoking. It is crucial for healthcare providers and expectant mothers to understand the serious consequences of smoking during pregnancy to make informed decisions and take steps to protect the health of the developing baby. In an educational context, understanding the effects of smoking during pregnancy is essential for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam. This knowledge equips them to provide accurate information to pregnant women, support smoking cessation efforts, and promote healthy pregnancies. By grasping the impact of maternal smoking on fetal development, future nurses can play a vital role in advocating for the well-being of both mother and baby.

Question 4 of 5

Septic shock usually shows a combination of hypovolemic and distributive shock in addition to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric patients with septic shock, the combination of hypovolemic and distributive shock is often present. The correct answer, option D, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is associated with severe sepsis and septic shock. DIC results from the widespread activation of clotting factors and consumption of clotting factors and platelets, leading to both bleeding and thrombosis. Option A, obstructive shock, occurs when there is physical obstruction of blood flow, such as in pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, but it is not typically seen in septic shock. Option B, cardiogenic shock, results from the heart's inability to pump effectively, which is not a typical feature of septic shock. Option C, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), is a severe lung condition often seen in critically ill patients but is not a defining characteristic of septic shock. Educationally, understanding the different types of shock and their potential complications is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients, especially in high-acuity settings like the pediatric intensive care unit. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of septic shock and its associated complications, such as DIC, can lead to prompt intervention and improved patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

Prior to extubation, and in order to reduce airway narrowing, it is advised to use:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric patients, airway narrowing can occur due to various reasons like inflammation, secretions, or edema. In this scenario, using inhaled budesonide prior to extubation is advised to reduce airway narrowing. Budesonide is a corticosteroid that helps decrease inflammation in the airways, making extubation smoother and reducing the risk of complications. Option A, dexamethasone IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may not specifically target the airways as effectively as inhaled budesonide. Systemic corticosteroids also have a higher risk of systemic side effects. Option B, betamethasone IV, is also a systemic corticosteroid and not the preferred choice for reducing airway narrowing prior to extubation in pediatric patients. Option D, nebulized budesonide, may seem like a plausible choice, but inhaled budesonide is preferred over nebulized budesonide due to its direct delivery to the airways and its ability to provide targeted anti-inflammatory effects. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind using specific medications in pediatric patients is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam. It not only tests their knowledge of pharmacology but also reinforces the importance of selecting the most appropriate intervention to achieve optimal patient outcomes. By grasping the rationale for using inhaled budesonide in this scenario, students can apply this knowledge in clinical practice to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients undergoing extubation.

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