ATI RN
Pediatric Cardiovascular Disorders Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
Abnormal coloration of the urine (in the absence of haematuria) may be due to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing and pharmacology, understanding the potential causes of abnormal coloration of urine is crucial. In this scenario, the correct answer is option A) Consumption of beetroot. Beetroot contains a compound called betanin, which can cause the urine to appear reddish or pink, mimicking hematuria. This phenomenon is known as beeturia. Option B) Treatment with co-danthramer is incorrect because although this medication can cause changes in stool color, it typically does not affect urine color. Option C) Phenylketonuria is a metabolic disorder that results in the accumulation of phenylalanine and can lead to intellectual disabilities if untreated, but it does not directly impact urine color. Option D) Acute intermittent porphyria is a rare metabolic disorder that can cause abdominal pain, neurological symptoms, and urine discoloration in the presence of porphyrins, but it is not a common cause of abnormal urine color. Educationally, understanding the differential causes of abnormal urine coloration is important for pediatric nurses to provide comprehensive care. By knowing that beetroot consumption can lead to beeturia, healthcare providers can avoid unnecessary alarm or interventions when evaluating patients' urine color. This knowledge helps in accurate assessment, patient education, and overall clinical decision-making in pediatric cardiovascular care.
Question 2 of 5
In the most common type of CAR:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders, understanding congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency (CAH) is crucial. The correct answer, B) Hypertension is a feature, aligns with the presentation of CAH, the most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In CAH, there is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase, leading to impaired cortisol and aldosterone synthesis. This results in increased ACTH production, causing adrenal hyperplasia and excess androgen production, which can lead to hypertension due to mineralocorticoid excess. Option A, deficient 11-hydroxylase, is incorrect as it refers to a different type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, not the most common form which is due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Option C, an associated gene defect, is a general statement that does not specifically relate to CAH. Option D, transmission being autosomal dominant, is incorrect as CAH due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. Educationally, understanding the nuances of different types of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is essential for nurses caring for pediatric patients with these conditions. Recognizing the clinical features, genetic basis, and inheritance patterns aids in accurate diagnosis, treatment, and management of these complex disorders.
Question 3 of 5
In systemic mastocytosis:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In systemic mastocytosis, the correct answer is B) Intermittent flushing is seen. This is because systemic mastocytosis is a disorder characterized by an abnormal accumulation of mast cells in various tissues and organs, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators that cause symptoms like flushing, itching, abdominal pain, and even anaphylaxis. Option A) Areas of depigmentation occur is incorrect because this symptom is not typically associated with systemic mastocytosis. Depigmentation is more commonly seen in conditions like vitiligo. Option C) IgE levels are high is also incorrect. While mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and IgE-mediated responses, high IgE levels are not a defining feature of systemic mastocytosis. Option D) Is relieved by aspirin is incorrect as well. In fact, aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with systemic mastocytosis by further triggering mast cell degranulation. Educational Context: Understanding the clinical manifestations and diagnostic criteria of systemic mastocytosis is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. Recognizing the hallmark symptoms like intermittent flushing can help healthcare providers promptly identify and manage this condition. It is essential for nurses to be knowledgeable about the appropriate management strategies, which may include antihistamines, mast cell stabilizers, and avoidance of triggers to prevent symptom exacerbation and improve patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
Causes of a discrete osteolytic bone lesion in a two-year-old include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a two-year-old with a discrete osteolytic bone lesion, the correct answer is option C) Eosinophilic granuloma. Eosinophilic granuloma, a form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis, commonly presents as a solitary lytic bone lesion in pediatric patients. This condition affects the bone and can cause localized destruction, leading to the characteristic bone lesion seen on imaging studies. Option A) Rickets is incorrect because it primarily affects the growth plates of long bones, resulting in deformities rather than discrete osteolytic lesions. Option B) Non-accidental injury is not a common cause of isolated bone lesions, and there would likely be other signs of trauma present. Option D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia typically presents with systemic symptoms and multiple bone lesions, rather than a discrete osteolytic lesion. Educationally, understanding the specific characteristics of different pediatric cardiovascular disorders is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing the key features of conditions like eosinophilic granuloma helps in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. This knowledge enhances the nurse's ability to provide holistic care to pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders, ensuring timely interventions and improved patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
The most appropriate first-line treatment for status epilepticus in a child is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric patients experiencing status epilepticus, the most appropriate first-line treatment is Diazepam (Option A). Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to terminate seizures by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA in the brain. Its rapid onset of action and efficacy make it the preferred initial choice in managing status epilepticus to prevent potential brain damage and complications. Phenytoin (Option B), Carbamazepine (Option C), and Valproate (Option D) are not the ideal first-line treatments for status epilepticus in children due to their slower onset of action and lower efficacy in stopping acute seizures. Phenytoin, for example, has a slower infusion rate and may not be as effective in the acute management of seizures compared to benzodiazepines like Diazepam. Educationally, it is crucial for nursing students to understand the importance of selecting the most appropriate medications in emergency situations like status epilepticus. Knowing the pharmacological properties, onset of action, and effectiveness of different antiepileptic drugs can help healthcare providers make informed decisions to ensure the best outcomes for pediatric patients experiencing seizures.