A young woman comes to the neighborhood clinic explaining that she had a negative urine pregnancy test last week but a positive test today. What is the best explanation?

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Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A young woman comes to the neighborhood clinic explaining that she had a negative urine pregnancy test last week but a positive test today. What is the best explanation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is probable that the hCG levels were not high enough to be detected last week. This is because hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is the hormone produced during pregnancy that is detected in pregnancy tests. In early pregnancy, hCG levels can be low and may not be detectable by a urine test until they reach a certain threshold. Therefore, a negative test last week could be due to the hCG levels being below the detection threshold at that time. A positive test today indicates that the hCG levels have increased and are now detectable. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: It is likely that you may not be pregnant, so wait to see if you get your period. This is incorrect because a positive test indicates pregnancy, and waiting for a period may not be appropriate if the woman is indeed pregnant. C: Don't worry, this happens sometimes. You should perform another test in a few days. This

Question 2 of 5

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. This is a positive sign of pregnancy because it is a direct indication of the presence of a fetus. Fetal movements can only be felt once the baby has developed enough to be physically palpable, typically around 18-20 weeks of gestation. This sign is considered reliable and conclusive evidence of pregnancy. A: A positive pregnancy test is a presumptive sign, as it indicates the possibility of pregnancy but is not definitive. C: Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs, as they are common in pregnancy but do not confirm the presence of a fetus. D: Quickening, the mother's first perception of fetal movements, is a probable sign and does not provide definitive proof of pregnancy.

Question 3 of 5

During a patient's physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chadwick's sign. This sign refers to the bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to increased vascularity in early pregnancy. The lower uterine segment being soft on palpation is consistent with Chadwick's sign, indicating early signs of pregnancy. A: Hegar's sign refers to softening of the lower uterine segment, not the cervix or vagina. B: McDonald's sign is the softening of the uterus at the isthmus, not specifically at the lower uterine segment. D: Goodell's sign pertains to softening of the cervix, not the lower uterine segment.

Question 4 of 5

Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Striae gravidarum, because it refers to stretch marks that occur during pregnancy and often persist postpartum. Epulis (A) is a benign gingival tumor that typically resolves after pregnancy. Chloasma (B) is a skin condition causing dark patches that usually fade postpartum. Telangiectasia (C) are small dilated blood vessels that commonly appear during pregnancy but may diminish after giving birth. Therefore, the key differentiator is the persistence of Striae gravidarum after delivery.

Question 5 of 5

A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse enquires about the woman’s last menstrual period and asks whether she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan that reveals she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive pregnancy test result?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: She takes anticonvulsants. Anticonvulsants can interfere with pregnancy test results by causing false-positive results. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Anticonvulsants, such as phenytoin and phenobarbital, contain hCG-like substances that can cross-react with pregnancy tests, leading to false-positive results. 2. The woman's history of epilepsy medication use suggests that she may be taking anticonvulsants, which could be the reason for the false-positive pregnancy test result. 3. Other choices are incorrect: A: Taking the test too early is unlikely since a week has passed since the missed period. C: Fibroid tumors do not typically cause false-positive pregnancy test results. D: Stress and hormone imbalance could impact menstrual cycles but are less likely to directly affect pregnancy test results.

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