ATI RN
Basics of Patient Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
A young man sustains a rifle wound to the mid-abdomen. The next, most appropriate step is to perform:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a laparotomy. This is the most appropriate step because a rifle wound to the mid-abdomen is a high-energy injury that can cause significant internal damage, such as bowel perforation or major blood vessel injury. A laparotomy allows for direct visualization of internal organs, identification, and repair of any injuries, and control of bleeding. An abdominal CT-scan (B) may delay necessary surgical intervention, while diagnostic laparoscopy (C) may not provide adequate access for effective treatment of severe injuries. Abdominal ultrasonography (D) is not typically indicated in the acute trauma setting for assessing internal abdominal injuries.
Question 2 of 5
A young man sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is brought promptly to the ED by prehospital personnel. His skin is cool and diaphoretic, and he is confuse His pulse is thready and his femoral pulse is only weakly palpable. The definitive treatment in managing this patient is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Control internal hemorrhage operatively. In this scenario, the young man's presentation suggests hypovolemic shock due to internal bleeding. Prompt surgical intervention to control the source of bleeding is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition. Administering blood (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the hemorrhage source is the priority. External warming devices (Choice B) and pneumatic anti-shock garments (Choice D) are not appropriate in this situation as the primary concern is controlling the internal bleeding to prevent further deterioration.
Question 3 of 5
Healthy young male in a motor vehicle crash has a BP of 84/60 and pulse 123. After fluid resuscitation, the next step is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Placement of a pelvic binder." In a trauma scenario with hypotension and tachycardia, the priority is to address potential life-threatening hemorrhage. Pelvic binders stabilize pelvic fractures, reducing bleeding and improving hemodynamics. This intervention can be crucial in preventing further blood loss and stabilizing the patient's condition. The other choices are not immediate priorities. Transferring to a trauma center can be done after stabilizing the patient. Pelvic x-ray and urinary catheter insertion are important for further evaluation but not urgent in this critical situation.
Question 4 of 5
A 82 year old male falls down five stairs and presents to the E All following statements are true statements regarding his condition compared to a younger patient with similar mechanism, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the older patient is less likely to exhibit delayed symptoms compared to a younger patient. This is because older individuals may have reduced sensory perception, leading to immediate symptoms post-injury. Choice A is incorrect as older adults often have decreased circulatory volume. Choice B is incorrect because the elderly are more likely to have pre-existing spinal issues, increasing the risk of cervical spine injury. Choice C is incorrect as older individuals have a higher likelihood of occult fractures due to decreased bone density.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following types of health care is generally for people who will die in six months or less?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hospice care is the correct answer because it provides specialized care for individuals with a life expectancy of six months or less. It focuses on enhancing quality of life through symptom management and emotional support. Long-term care is for individuals needing assistance with daily activities for an extended period. Outpatient care is for those who do not require hospitalization. Intergenerational care involves integrating different age groups in caregiving settings, not specific to end-of-life care.