Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A young man feels something in his scrotum and comes to you for clarification. On your examination, you note what feels like a "bag of worms" in the left scrotum, superior to the testicles. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A varicocele is a common cause of a "bag of worms" feeling in the scrotum. It occurs due to the dilation of the veins within the spermatic cord, leading to a palpable mass above the testicle. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side due to the anatomy of the left testicular vein, which drains into the left renal vein at a right angle, making it more susceptible to increased pressure and dilation.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with ear pain. She is an avid swimmer. The history includes pain and drainage from the left ear. On examination, she has pain when the ear is manipulated, including manipulation of the tragus. The canal is narrowed and erythematous, with some white debris in the canal. The rest of the examination is normal. What diagnosis would you assign this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's history of swimming and presenting symptoms of ear pain, drainage, and manipulation tenderness are suggestive of external otitis, commonly known as swimmer's ear. External otitis is an infection of the outer ear canal, which can be caused by prolonged moisture exposure, trauma, or bacterial/fungal infections. The narrowed and erythematous canal with white debris is characteristic of this condition. Otitis media (Choice A) typically presents with deep ear pain, hearing loss, and sometimes fever, but does not involve the ear canal. Perforation of the tympanum (Choice C) would present with sudden relief of pain and possible drainage from the ear. Cholesteatoma (Choice D) is characterized by a painless cyst or mass in the middle ear, not presenting with these acute ear canal symptoms.

Question 3 of 5

What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal is typically .5 to 1 pound per week. This rate of weight loss is considered safe and sustainable in the long term. Losing weight too quickly (options B, C, D) can be harmful to your health and may lead to muscle loss, nutritional deficiencies, and a slow metabolism. Rapid weight loss is also harder to maintain in the long run. Gradual weight loss of .5 to 1 pound per week allows for healthy changes to diet and exercise habits, making it more likely to be maintained over time. It is also more likely to result in lasting weight loss and overall improvements in health and well-being.

Question 4 of 5

A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

Question 5 of 5

An elderly woman with dementia is brought in by her daughter for a "rectal mass." On examination you notice a moist pink mass protruding from the anus, which is nontender. It is soft and does not have any associated bleeding. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rectal prolapse occurs when the rectum protrudes through the anus. It typically appears as a moist, pink mass that protrudes outside the body. The prolapse is usually painless and can be seen and felt by the patient or the examiner. It is commonly seen in elderly individuals, especially women, and those with conditions like chronic constipation, pelvic floor weakness, or dementia. On the other hand, external hemorrhoids are swollen veins located around the anus, usually painful and may cause bleeding. Perianal fistula is an abnormal tunnel-like connection between the skin near the anus and the rectum, which can cause pain and discharge. Prolapsed internal hemorrhoids are internal hemorrhoids that have descended outside the anal canal and may require manual reduction. Given the symptoms described in the scenario - a moist pink mass protruding from the anus that is nontender and soft without bleeding - the most likely diagnosis is rectal prol

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