A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?

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Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches. A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation. B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention. D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.

Question 2 of 9

The new nurse is caring for six patients in this shift. After completing their assessments, the nurse asks where to begin in developing care plans for these patients. Which statement is an appropriate suggestion by another nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions." Rationale: 1. Start with the highest priority diagnoses: Prioritizing care based on the patients' most critical needs ensures their safety and well-being. 2. Identify appropriate interventions: Select interventions that directly address the priority diagnoses to promote effective care delivery. 3. Tailor interventions to individual needs: By focusing on high-priority diagnoses, the nurse can personalize care plans for each patient. 4. Ensure efficient use of resources: Addressing critical issues first optimizes time and resources for the most impactful outcomes. Summary: A: Incorrect. Performing interventions based on time needed may not address the most critical patient needs. B: Incorrect. While scientific rationale is important, it should come after identifying priority diagnoses. C: Incorrect. Setting goals and outcomes should follow the identification of high-priority diagnoses for effective care planning.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: 1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs. 2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy. 3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care. 4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "It is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain." This response is correct because it accurately describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary condition where blood flow to the brain is briefly interrupted. This explanation is clear, concise, and provides the family member with an accurate understanding of TIA. Choice A is incorrect because it deflects the question and suggests involving the doctor unnecessarily. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it simply defines the acronym without providing any meaningful information about what TIA actually is.

Question 6 of 9

Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.

Question 7 of 9

The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect. Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect. Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication. Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.

Question 8 of 9

A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.

Question 9 of 9

A female client age 66 is admitted ff a nephrolithomy. One of her laboratory tests reveals a urinary tract infection. Which would be the best nursing action in her case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake of 3000ml/day helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of infection spread. Adequate hydration also prevents further stone formation. Incorrect Choices: A: Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions may not directly address the urinary tract infection. B: Administering narcotic analgesics may mask symptoms but not treat the root cause of the infection. D: Suggesting herbs or spices does not address the need for adequate fluid intake to manage the urinary tract infection.

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