ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches. A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation. B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention. D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.
Question 2 of 9
A client with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and a history of two myocardial infarctions and coronary artery disease is to receive levothyroxine (Synthroid). Because of the client’s cardiac history, the nurse would expect that the client’s initial dose for the thyroid replacement would be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 25 g/day, initially. In this scenario, the client with Hashimoto's thyroiditis and a history of cardiac issues requires a cautious approach due to the risk of exacerbating cardiac conditions with thyroid hormone replacement. Starting with a low dose of 25 µg/day allows for careful monitoring of the client's response and prevents potential adverse effects on the cardiovascular system. Summary: B: Delayed until after thyroid surgery - Not appropriate as the client requires thyroid replacement therapy for Hashimoto's thyroiditis. C: 100 µg/day, initially - Too high of an initial dose and may lead to adverse cardiovascular effects. D: Initiated before thyroid surgery - Not relevant to the client's situation as there is no indication for thyroid surgery mentioned in the question.
Question 3 of 9
A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff. safety instructions should the nurse give a patient who has temporarily dilated pupils?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear sunglasses. Dilated pupils are sensitive to light, so wearing sunglasses can help protect the eyes from excessive light exposure. Keeping the eyes closed (A) may provide temporary relief but does not protect the eyes from light. Avoiding driving for 8 hours (C) is important after certain eye procedures but not specifically related to dilated pupils. Avoiding caffeinated beverages (D) is unrelated to pupil dilation.
Question 5 of 9
Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.
Question 6 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 7 of 9
A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches. A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation. B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention. D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Question 9 of 9
A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.