A young female patient comes to the health unit at school to discuss her irregular periods. In providing education regardinNg thRe feImalGe reBpr.odCuctMive cycle, the nurse describes the regular U S N T O and recurrent changes related to the ovaries and the uterine endometrium. Although this is generally referred to as the menstrual cycle, the ovarian cycle includes which phases? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follicular phase. The ovarian cycle consists of two main phases: the follicular phase and the luteal phase. During the follicular phase, the ovarian follicles mature in preparation for ovulation. This phase is characterized by rising levels of estrogen. The luteal phase follows ovulation and is characterized by the formation of the corpus luteum and increased progesterone levels to support a potential pregnancy. The ovulatory phase is not a distinct phase of the ovarian cycle but rather the event of ovulation itself. Proliferative phase is a term used to describe changes in the uterine endometrium, not the ovarian cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it accurately reflects the phases of the ovarian cycle.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bones and liver. Breast cancer commonly metastasizes to bones and liver due to their rich blood supply, making them favorable sites for cancer cells to spread. Bones provide a supportive environment for cancer growth, while liver offers a hospitable environment for circulating cancer cells. Other choices are incorrect as breast cancer rarely metastasizes to kidneys, heart, blood vessels, or skin. Kidneys are not common sites for breast cancer spread, and heart and blood vessels lack the conducive environment for cancer growth. Skin metastasis in breast cancer is rare and usually indicates advanced disease.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because primary dysmenorrhea is often caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production, leading to increased uterine contractions and pain. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. A: Incorrect. Not all women experience primary dysmenorrhea; it varies in prevalence. B: Incorrect. Oral contraceptives can help manage dysmenorrhea by reducing prostaglandin production. C: Incorrect. Primary dysmenorrhea is more common in nulliparous women, not multiparous women. In summary, D is correct due to the established link between excessive prostaglandin and primary dysmenorrhea, while the other choices are inaccurate based on current knowledge and research.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 2. Over time, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline. 3. Ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment due to its effectiveness against resistant strains. 4. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Summary: - Penicillin and tetracycline are no longer effective due to resistance. - Ceftriaxone is the current drug of choice for gonorrhea treatment. - Acyclovir is not used for bacterial infections like gonorrhea.