A young adult arrives in the emergency department with ankle swelling and severe pain after twisting an ankle playing basketball. Which of these prescribed interprofessional interventions will the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack. This intervention addresses immediate pain management and inflammation control, crucial in the initial management of an ankle injury. Wrapping the ankle helps stabilize it, while applying an ice pack reduces swelling and provides pain relief. X-rays (A) are important for diagnosing fractures but are not the first priority. Administering naproxen (C) or acetaminophen with codeine (D) can help with pain relief, but they are not as immediate as applying ice and wrapping the ankle. Ice and compression are the first-line interventions in acute ankle injuries.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immobilization of the left leg. In acute osteomyelitis, immobilization of the affected limb helps reduce movement and prevent further damage or spread of infection. Immobilization also promotes healing and allows for effective administration of regional antibiotic irrigation. Quadriceps-setting exercises (choice A) may be considered later in the treatment plan to prevent muscle atrophy but are not appropriate initially. Positioning the left leg in flexion (choice C) can worsen the infection by limiting circulation and exacerbating pain. Assisted weight-bearing ambulation (choice D) can increase pressure on the affected bone and hinder healing.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: a loss of height. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone density, leading to a loss of height due to compression fractures in the spine. Bowed legs (choice A) are not typically associated with osteoporosis. The report of frequent falls (choice C) may indicate balance issues but is not specific to osteoporosis. An aversion to dairy products (choice D) may lead to a lack of calcium intake, but it is not a direct assessment finding for osteoporosis. Therefore, the presence of a loss of height is the most indicative assessment finding for osteoporosis in a 55-year-old patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach about the use of vitamin D supplements. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of vitamin D, leading to weak and soft bones. Vitamin D supplements help in improving calcium absorption and bone mineralization. By educating the patient about the importance of vitamin D supplements, the nurse addresses the root cause of osteomalacia. Choice B is incorrect because while weight-bearing exercise is beneficial for bone health, it does not directly address the vitamin D deficiency seen in osteomalacia. Choice C is incorrect as bisphosphonates are typically used in conditions like osteoporosis, not osteomalacia. Choice D is incorrect as sunscreen use, although important for skin health, does not address the underlying vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Onychomycosis. This is a fungal infection of the nail caused by dermatophytes, yeasts, or molds. In this case, the description of the nail appearing opaque and white, with the fungus appearing to digest the keratin, is consistent with onychomycosis. The fact that the client has had this for years also aligns with the chronic nature of onychomycosis. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, typically affecting mucous membranes or skin folds, not nails. B: Cellulitis is a bacterial infection involving the deeper layers of the skin, not related to fungal nail infections. D: Tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, commonly known as ringworm, not specific to nails.