A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this case is Staphylococcus epidermidis. This conclusion can be drawn based on the characteristics provided: Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria. Explanation of other choices: - Staphylococcus aureus: Typically coagulase-positive, so it does not match the characteristics given. - Streptococcus pyogenes: Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Also, it is catalase-negative. - Enterococcus faecalis: Gram-positive cocci in pairs or chains, not clusters. Additionally, it is catalase-negative. Therefore, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent based on the provided characteristics.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: flagella. Flagella are whip-like structures that move fluid, mucus, or cells over the surface of a cell. They are longer and fewer in number compared to cilia, which are shorter and more numerous. Fimbriae are small, bristle-like structures that help bacteria attach to surfaces but do not move fluid. Microvilli are tiny projections that increase the surface area for absorption but do not have a role in moving fluid or cells. Therefore, flagella is the correct answer as it specifically fits the function described in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prokaryotic. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells because they lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. They have a simple cell structure with genetic material floating freely in the cytoplasm. Choice A (eukaryotic) is incorrect because eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Choice C (diploid) is incorrect as bacteria do not have a defined ploidy level like diploid organisms do. Choice D (haploid) is also incorrect as bacteria do not have a true haploid or diploid state due to their lack of a defined nucleus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because there is no effective killed vaccine that is protective against all capsular types of Haemophilus spp. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine primarily targets specific capsular types, not all of them. Choice A is incorrect because non-encapsulated strains can indeed be isolated from healthy carriers. Choice C is incorrect as Haemophilus influenzae is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets, not through the air. Choice D is not correct because Choice B is indeed incorrect, making it the right answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Granulomatosis infantiseptica is commonly caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a bacterium known to infect newborns. It can lead to granulomatous lesions in various organs. Staphylococcus aureus and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are not typical causes of this condition in infants. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests all listed bacteria are responsible, which is not accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is C as Listeria monocytogenes is the specific pathogen associated with granulomatosis infantiseptica.