ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A wound culture grew Gram-positive rods with central spores. The bacteria were catalase-positive and aerobic. Identify the microorganism.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods with central spores, catalase-positive, and aerobic growth characteristics are indicative of Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is known for its central spores and ability to grow aerobically. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium tetani is a Gram-positive rod with terminal spores and is anaerobic. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci and catalase-negative. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod and catalase-positive, but is not associated with central spores.
Question 2 of 9
Plasmodium is a type of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: slime mold. Plasmodium is a type of slime mold, specifically a parasitic protist that causes malaria in humans. Slime molds are a group of organisms that share characteristics of both fungi and protozoa. Plasmodium does not belong to the other categories listed: A) protozoan refers to a broad category of single-celled eukaryotic organisms, C) spirochetes are a type of bacteria, and D) helminths are parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct classification for Plasmodium is slime mold.
Question 3 of 9
What is a viral capsid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: protein envelope around the nucleic acid. Viral capsid is the protein coat that surrounds and protects the viral nucleic acid (DNA or RNA). This structure helps in protecting the genetic material from degradation and facilitates the attachment of the virus to host cells. Option B is incorrect as it suggests the nucleic acid is coated with protein, which is not the case. Option C is incorrect as not all viruses have an outer membrane. Option D is incorrect as viruses typically do not have a lipoprotein membrane.
Question 4 of 9
Transformation in bacteria refers to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because transformation in bacteria refers to the uptake of naked DNA from the environment. During transformation, bacteria take up free DNA from their surroundings and incorporate it into their own genome. This mechanism allows bacteria to acquire new genetic material and traits. Explanation for other choices: A: Transfer of DNA via phages refers to transduction, not transformation. C: Transfer of DNA via direct contact is known as conjugation, not transformation. D: Spore formation is a method of bacterial survival but is not related to transformation.
Question 5 of 9
Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Overcrowding. Overcrowding can facilitate the spread of infectious diseases due to increased contact between individuals, making it easier for pathogens to transmit from one person to another. This is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism as it directly impacts the likelihood of disease transmission. Environmental pollution (B) may impact overall health but is not a direct risk factor for infectious diseases. Physical fatigue (C) weakens the immune system but is not a direct facilitator of disease transmission. Ionizing radiation (D) can cause cellular damage but is not a typical risk factor for infectious diseases.
Question 6 of 9
A 70-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after suffering extensive third-degree burns. Three days later he spiked a fever and there was pus on the dressing that had blue-green colour. Gram stain of the pus revealed gram-negative rods. The most possible cause of these findings is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The pyocyanin released by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pyocyanin is a blue-green pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a common cause of nosocomial infections in burn patients. The presence of blue-green pus and gram-negative rods in the wound along with fever suggests an infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The other choices are incorrect because E. Coli typically causes gastrointestinal infections and releases enterotoxins, Staphylococcus aureus releases hemolysins causing hemolysis of red blood cells, and Shigella dysenteriae releases shigatoxin causing bloody diarrhea, none of which match the clinical presentation described in the question.
Question 7 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory received a sample of dried fish from an outbreak of food poisoning. Inoculation of the sample on Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms resembling tennis racket. These microorganisms are causative agents of the following disease:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: The description of microorganisms resembling tennis racket indicates Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. Step 2: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection that can cause severe respiratory and systemic symptoms. Step 3: Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum, not tennis racket-shaped microorganisms. Step 4: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi, which does not resemble tennis rackets. Step 5: Salmonellosis is caused by various Salmonella species, which also do not have the described tennis racket appearance.
Question 8 of 9
The most common urinary tract pathogen is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E.coli is the most common urinary tract pathogen due to its ability to adhere to and infect the urinary tract epithelium. It accounts for approximately 80-85% of urinary tract infections. It possesses specific virulence factors that enable it to colonize and cause infection in the urinary tract. Proteus mirabilis (A) is known for causing complicated UTIs, but it is less common than E.coli. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is not a common urinary pathogen. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, rather than community-acquired urinary tract infections.
Question 9 of 9
Infection of many people with known epidemiological link' is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidemic. This term refers to the widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a specific community or region at a particular time. In this scenario, the infection of many people with a known epidemiological link indicates a localized outbreak within a defined population. Explanation: 1. Epidemic specifically refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population. 2. The term "known epidemiological link" suggests a clear connection between the cases, indicating a common source or mode of transmission within a specific group. 3. Endemic (choice A) refers to the constant presence of a disease within a specific geographic area or population. 4. Pandemic (choice B) refers to a global outbreak of a disease that spreads across countries and continents. 5. Sporadic disease (choice D) refers to isolated cases that occur infrequently and without a clear pattern. In summary, an epidemic best describes the situation of many people being