A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because infectious (non-sterile) immunity is achieved through the persistence of the infectious agent in the body, allowing the immune system to continuously recognize and combat the pathogen. This type of immunity provides long-lasting protection against future infections by the same agent. Choice A (cross-reactivity of antibodies) is incorrect as it refers to the ability of antibodies to recognize similar antigens, not necessarily related to infectious immunity. Choice B (toxemia and formation of antitoxic antibodies) is incorrect as it specifically relates to toxins produced by pathogens and the corresponding antibody response, not the persistence of the infectious agent itself. Choice D (neutralization of infectious agent) is incorrect as it describes the process of antibodies binding to and inactivating pathogens, but it does not necessarily lead to long-term immunity through the persistence of the infectious agent.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cytoplasmic membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the fluidlike portion of a cell that separates the cell's contents from the external environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintains cell shape, and provides protection. Rationale: 1. Cytosol (choice A) is the liquid component of the cytoplasm where organelles are suspended, not the fluidlike portion of the cell. 2. Nucleoplasm (choice B) refers to the liquid component of the nucleus, not the entire cell. 3. Inclusion (choice D) refers to non-living substances within the cell that are not considered the fluidlike portion. Summary: The cytoplasmic membrane is the correct answer as it encompasses the entire cell and is responsible for maintaining cell integrity and regulating transport. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the fluidlike portion of the cell.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria. Bacteria are the most common cause of laboratory-acquired infections due to their ability to survive and multiply in various environments. They can easily contaminate lab equipment and surfaces, leading to infections if proper precautions are not taken. Viruses (choice B) are less common in laboratory-acquired infections as they require specific conditions to survive outside a host. Protozoans (choice C) are larger and less likely to be transmitted in a laboratory setting. Prions (choice D) are misfolded proteins and are not considered living organisms, making them an unlikely source of laboratory infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Syphilis. The Wasserman reaction is a test for syphilis, specifically for detecting antibodies against the bacterium Treponema pallidum. In a 30-year-old man with a markedly positive Wasserman reaction, it indicates an active syphilis infection. Brucellosis (Choice A) is not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Poliomyelitis (Choice C) is a viral infection affecting the spinal cord, not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Influenza (Choice D) is a respiratory viral infection, not associated with the Wasserman reaction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flaviviridae. Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family because it is a flavivirus. Flaviviruses are a group of RNA viruses known to cause diseases in humans, such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever. This family is characterized by its single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome and enveloped virion structure. Hepadnaviridae (choice A), Parvoviridae (choice B), and Picornaviridae (choice D) are all different families of viruses that do not include the dengue virus. Hepadnaviridae includes hepatitis B virus, Parvoviridae includes parvoviruses, and Picornaviridae includes enteroviruses like poliovirus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.