A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. Salmonellosis is typically caused by Salmonella species, with Salmonella enteritidis being one of the common culprits. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not salmonellosis. Shigella flexneri is responsible for causing shigellosis, a different bacterial infection. Choosing "None of the above" is incorrect as Salmonella enteritidis is a known cause of salmonellosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a type of pneumonia called tuberculosis. 3. Escherichia coli is not typically associated with pneumonia. 4. "All of the above" includes both Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which are known to cause pneumonia. Therefore, D is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Culture of samples from the respiratory tract can identify specific pathogens, Immunofluorescence can detect viral antigens, and PCR can amplify and detect specific DNA/RNA sequences. Using all methods together provides a comprehensive approach for diagnosing respiratory tract infections. Culture alone may miss fastidious organisms, Immunofluorescence has limitations in sensitivity, and PCR requires specific primers. Therefore, combining these methods increases the likelihood of accurate diagnosis by covering a range of pathogens and improving sensitivity and specificity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Precipitins. When a granular sediment forms at the bottom of the test-tubes, it indicates the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that are insoluble and precipitate out of the solution. Precipitins are antibodies that specifically react with antigens to form insoluble complexes. Agglutinins cause clumping of cells, opsonins enhance phagocytosis, and bacteriolysins lyse bacteria. These processes do not result in the formation of a granular sediment, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Tuberculin is introduced) is correct: 1. Tuberculin test helps identify individuals with latent TB infection. 2. Negative skin-allergic samples suggest absence of active TB. 3. Introducing tuberculin can help confirm latent TB infection. 4. Antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. 5. Vaccines are not administered for TB diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. - Choice C is incorrect as vaccines are not used for TB diagnosis. - Choice D is incorrect as introducing tuberculin is the appropriate step in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest Streptococcus species. Step 2: Catalase-negative eliminates Staphylococcus aureus. Step 3: Beta-hemolytic on blood agar matches Streptococcus pyogenes. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes is a common cause of sore throat (pharyngitis). Summary: A: Streptococcus pyogenes - Correct due to Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase-negative, beta-hemolytic, and common cause of sore throat. B: Staphylococcus aureus - Incorrect due to catalase-positive. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect due to alpha-hemolytic. D: Enterococcus faecalis - Incorrect due to not being beta-hemolytic.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.