A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. This bacterium is known for causing tetanus due to its ability to produce tetanospasmin, a neurotoxin that leads to the characteristic muscle stiffness and spasms seen in tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) is associated with gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice C) causes streptococcal infections, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) is known for causing various gastrointestinal infections. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the causative agents of tetanus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: prions. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Prions are not viruses like flavoviruses (A) or orthomyxoviruses (D). Virusoids (B) are small, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules that require a helper virus to replicate and are not associated with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. Therefore, the correct answer is C as prions are the only choice that correctly links to the etiology of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infectious process. The term "infection" refers to the invasion of a host organism's body tissues by disease-causing agents, such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites. It encompasses the entire process from the initial entry of the pathogen to the host's response and resolution. Choice B, "Infectious disease," is incorrect as it specifically refers to the clinical manifestation of an infection. Choice C is irrelevant, and Choice D is incorrect as the term "infection" is indeed equivalent to the infectious process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Pneumonic plague. The patient's symptoms align with the presentation of pneumonic plague, caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Symptoms include high fever, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with bloody sputum, and cyanosis. The characteristic bubonic plague lymphadenopathy may be absent in the pneumonic form. The patient's recent travel history to India also raises suspicion, as plague is endemic in some regions. The other choices can be ruled out based on the patient's symptoms and presentation. Miliary tuberculosis typically presents with diffuse miliary nodules on imaging. Influenza typically presents with more generalized symptoms and does not usually cause rusty sputum. Ornithosis is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci and usually presents with pneumonia-like symptoms after exposure to infected birds.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid. Ziehl-Neelsen method is used to stain acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium species. Mycolic acid in the cell wall of these bacteria resists decolorization, leading to red-colored bacilli on a blue background. Capsule, flagella, and endospores do not play a role in this staining property. Capsules are usually stained using special techniques, flagella are not typically visible with this stain, and endospores are stained using the Schaeffer-Fulton method.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During latency, HSV1 exists as episomes in neurons. This is because HSV1 establishes a lifelong latent infection in sensory neurons, where the viral genome remains as a circular episome in the nucleus. This form allows the virus to persist in a dormant state, avoiding detection by the immune system. Choice A is incorrect as HSV1 does not integrate into the host chromosome. Choice C is incorrect as latency is a well-documented phenomenon for HSV1. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adhesion to surfaces. Bacterial fimbriae are hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces, such as host cells or medical devices. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. DNA replication (B) occurs in the cell's nucleus, not on the surface. Protein synthesis (C) happens inside the cell, not on the fimbriae. Flagella movement (D) is the function of flagella, not fimbriae.