A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.

Question 2 of 9

A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has developed after tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV. This type of reaction, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, is characterized by the activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. In the case of the Mantoux test, the appearance of a papule 48 hours later indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Choice B: Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves immune complexes forming in the blood vessels leading to tissue damage, which is not the mechanism seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice C: Reaction of serum sickness type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes in the blood leading to systemic symptoms like fever, rash, and joint pain, which is not typically seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice D: Atopic reaction is incorrect as atopic reactions involve IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation, which are not the mechanisms

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a deep tissue infection had Gram-negative rods isolated from the wound culture. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.

Question 4 of 9

What is the best therapeutic plan for treating actinomycosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chemotherapy combined with surgical therapy. Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection that requires a combination of antibiotics to target the bacteria and surgery to remove abscesses or infected tissues. Antibiotics alone may not penetrate abscesses effectively. Waiting for self-clearance can lead to complications. Surgical treatment alone may not eradicate the infection entirely. Therefore, the most effective therapeutic plan is to combine chemotherapy to treat the infection systemically and surgery to remove localized infections.

Question 5 of 9

Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Question 7 of 9

For Parvovirus B19 it is true that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus. 2. The prefix "parvo-" indicates small size, characteristic of ssDNA viruses. 3. ssDNA viruses replicate in the host cell by converting their ssDNA genome into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Its genome consists of dsDNA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Parvovirus B19 is a non-enveloped virus, making choice B incorrect. C: Parvovirus B19 has a linear ssDNA genome, not segmented, making choice C incorrect. D: Parvovirus B19 has two structural proteins - VP1 and VP2, making choice D incorrect.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that produces a toxin leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Salmonella enterica (C) causes salmonellosis, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause various illnesses but not cholera. Vibrio cholerae is the only bacteria specifically known for causing cholera.

Question 9 of 9

The Marburg virus was originally spread by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: green monkeys. The Marburg virus was first identified in 1967 in Marburg and Frankfurt, Germany, after outbreaks in lab workers exposed to infected African green monkeys. These monkeys were imported from Uganda. The virus is believed to be originally endemic in certain species of African bats and is transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals. Choice A, laboratory rats, is incorrect as the virus did not originate from rats. Choice B, birds, and Choice D, wild turkeys, are also incorrect as there is no evidence linking these animals to the transmission of the Marburg virus.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days