A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics indicate Staphylococcus species. Specifically, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and a frequent cause of wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it less likely in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus faecalis are both Gram-positive cocci but are catalase-negative, making them less likely causative agents.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. This genetic material carries instructions for viral replication. Proteins are also essential components of viruses, serving various functions like facilitating viral entry into host cells. Option A is incorrect as lipids are not main components of viruses. Option B is incorrect as lipids are not typically found in the main structure of viruses. Option D is incorrect as lipids are not primary components of viruses, and glycoproteins are not always present in the main structure of viruses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ascoli ring test. Agglutination reaction in the Ascoli ring test is characterized by the formation of a visible ring at the interface of antigen and antibody. This reaction specifically tests for the presence of specific antibodies against antigens in serum, indicating a recent or current infection. The other options, Western blot, ELISA, and Reaction type Gruber, do not involve the agglutination reaction. Western blot and ELISA are immunoassay techniques that detect specific antibodies or antigens, while Reaction type Gruber is not a recognized method in immunology. Therefore, the Ascoli ring test is the correct choice for a test involving agglutination reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mononuclears, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines. In a Mantoux test reaction, mononuclear cells, mainly T-lymphocytes, are activated by the injected allergen. These T-lymphocytes release lymphokines, leading to the observed swelling, hyperaemia, and tenderness. Granulocytes and IgG (choice B) are not the primary players in this type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Plasmatic cells (choice C) are not involved in the initial stages of this reaction. B-lymphocytes and IgM (choice D) are not the key components in the Mantoux test reaction.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigellosis. Shigellosis is caused by the bacteria Shigella, commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water. The bacteria can spread easily in unsanitary conditions. Mumps (A) is a viral infection spread through respiratory droplets. Legionellosis (C) is caused by the Legionella bacteria found in water sources like cooling towers. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection transmitted through the air. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to contaminated food transmission.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.