A worker of a cattle farm consulted a surgeon about fever up to 40oC, headache, weakness. Objective examination of his back revealed hyperaemia and a dark red infiltration up to 5 cm in diameter with black bottom in the center and some pustules. What disease are these presentations typical for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, and the skin lesion described (hyperemic with a dark red infiltration, black center, and pustules) are characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. The black center is known as an eschar. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, commonly found in cattle. Plague (choice B) typically presents with swollen lymph nodes (buboes) and is caused by Yersinia pestis. Tularemia (choice C) presents with fever, ulcer at the site of infection, and lymphadenopathy, caused by Francisella tularensis. Furuncle (choice D) is a localized skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, presenting as a red, swollen, and painful bump.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. 1. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis. 2. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, not syphilis. 3. Leptospira interrogans causes leptospirosis, not syphilis. 4. Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever, not syphilis. Therefore, Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of syphilis, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BCG vaccination. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals with a negative Mantoux test result, especially in countries where tuberculosis is prevalent. This vaccination can help provide protection against tuberculosis. Choice A is incorrect because repeating the Mantoux test in a month is unnecessary since the boy already had a negative reaction. Choice B is incorrect as serodiagnosis of tuberculosis is not the first-line approach for diagnosis, especially in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because urgent isolation is not necessary based solely on the Mantoux test result. Isolation is typically reserved for individuals with active tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, and the skin lesion described (hyperemic with a dark red infiltration, black center, and pustules) are characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. The black center is known as an eschar. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, commonly found in cattle. Plague (choice B) typically presents with swollen lymph nodes (buboes) and is caused by Yersinia pestis. Tularemia (choice C) presents with fever, ulcer at the site of infection, and lymphadenopathy, caused by Francisella tularensis. Furuncle (choice D) is a localized skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, presenting as a red, swollen, and painful bump.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is responsible for causing the plague, a severe infectious disease. This bacterium is transmitted via fleas from rodents to humans. It causes bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic plague. Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections, Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause various infections but not the plague.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism, Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins causing gastrointestinal illness. Therefore, all three bacteria are known for producing toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Choices A, B, and C individually represent bacteria known for producing toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness, making them incorrect individual choices.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because antibacterial chemotherapeutics need to be maximally toxic to microorganisms, not lead to allergic reactions, be stable, and have a wide spectrum of activity to effectively treat bacterial infections. A is incorrect because maximum toxicity to bacteria can lead to harmful side effects in the body. B is incorrect because rapid disintegration and insolubility in water would hinder the drug's effectiveness. D is incorrect because the basic requirements for antibacterial chemotherapeutics are outlined in option C.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous infection with long incubation period. Fudrjant fern of injection is a term used to describe an infection that is continuously present in the body after being introduced through injection. The long incubation period refers to the time between the injection and when symptoms of the infection become apparent. This choice is correct as it accurately describes the characteristics of fudrjant fern of injection. Choice B is incorrect because chronic infections typically have a long duration, not a short incubation period. Choice C is incorrect as immediate infections would not have a long incubation period. Choice D is incorrect because a 'sleeping' infection implies a dormant state, not continuous presence in the body as seen in fudrjant fern of injection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The Filoviridae family includes Marburg virus and Ebola virus. 2. Both viruses are characterized by filamentous, enveloped structure. 3. They cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. 4. Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses belong to Arenaviridae. 5. Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus are alphaviruses. 6. Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus are bunyaviruses. 7. Therefore, the correct answer is C.